Name: 
 

2001 National Agricultural Mechanics Test



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

When knife selections on a cutter bar mower are equal distance from the centerline of the guard at each end of the stroke, the cutter bar is said to be in correct ____.
a.
alignment
b.
adjustment
c.
register
d.
camber
 

 2. 

The replaceable cutting sections on cutter bar mower knives are fastened by ____.
a.
bolts
b.
rivets
c.
screws
d.
bolts and rivets
 

 3. 

Adjusting the knife hold-down clips on a cutter bar mower can be made by ____.
a.
shimming
b.
turning the adjusting screw
c.
bending with a hammer
d.
either shimming or bending with a hammer
 

 4. 

Multi-disk mowers use ____ to actually cut the crop.
a.
free swinging knives
c.
reciprocating knives
b.
sections
d.
sharpened disks
 

 5. 

When large round bales are used the moisture content of the crop being baled may be as high as ____ percent.
a.
15
b.
20
c.
25
d.
30
 

 6. 

Which of the following windrowers use a conveyor belt or belts to move the crop to discharge?
a.
draper
b.
auger
c.
swather
d.
radial
 

 7. 

The implement used to scatter and fluff a crop to allow it to dry or cure quickly is called a _______.
a.
parallel bar rake
c.
windrower
b.
tedder
d.
finger wheel rake
 

 8. 

The  major reason for baling hay with a large round baler vs a small square baler is _________.
a.
time efficiency
c.
labor efficiency
b.
cost efficiency
d.
improved quality of the hay
 

 9. 

The purpose of wrapping a large round bale with twine is to _______.
a.
help retain the bale shape
c.
make the  ball more durable
b.
prevent forage loss
d.
all of these are correct
 

 10. 

Which of the following types of tractor PTO controls is best suited to field operations such as baling?
a.
transmission driven
c.
sprag clutch
b.
relative ground speed
d.
independent
 

 11. 

The theoretical field capacity of a machine such as a windrower or forage harvester is a function of what two factors?
a.
machine weight and height
c.
travel speed and working width
b.
PTO speed and angle
d.
machine temperature and velocity
 

 12. 

In order to determine the PTO (power takeoff) power output of a tractor, one must measure _______ and ________.
a.
torque and rotational speed
b.
drawbar pull and travel speed
c.
fuel consumption and engine temperature
d.
pressure and flow
 

 13. 

When baling hay, if there is a large bunch of hay in the windrow and you are concerned about clogging the baler, you should ______.
a.
shift to a higher gear
c.
shift to a lower gear
b.
reduce engine speed
d.
shut off the PTO
 

 14. 

The process of ensuring that PTO shaft sections are properly assembled to prevent excessive vibration during operation is called _______.
a.
telescoping
b.
phasing
c.
telegraphing
d.
coding
 

 15. 

When operating a tractor with a mounted loader on the highway during transport from one field to the next, the operator should always _______.
a.
lock the brake pedals together
b.
raise the loader bucket fully
c.
unlock the brake pedals to aid in steering
d.
operate in the lowest speed range
 

 16. 

The average farm tractor will convert about _____% of engine power to PTO power.
a.
30
b.
86
c.
50
d.
110
 

 17. 

Which of the following types of mowers is the most efficient for forage harvesting?
a.
rotary
b.
flail
c.
cutter bar
d.
macerator
 

 18. 

Most tractor manufacturers suggest refueling at the end of the day______.
a.
to prevent moisture accumulation
c.
to save time
b.
because fuel is less expensive
d.
because the fuel is more dense
 

 19. 

If you check tractor wheel slippage in the field and find that it is zero, what should you do?
a.
nothing
c.
add more ballast
b.
remove ballast
d.
drive faster
 

 20. 

Loss of crankcase vacuum would normally result in
a.
premature wear
b.
over speeding
c.
excessive oil consumption and smoking
d.
breakage of the connecting rod
 

 21. 

When special tools are required for a particular engine, they will be listed in a(n);
a.
Sears Catalog
c.
owner’s manual
b.
automotive catalog
d.
repair manual
 

 22. 

Metal fatigue cracks will result from...
a.
overheating
c.
poor quality metal
b.
excessive vibration
d.
over tightened tools
 

 23. 

When should safety glasses be worn in the shop?
a.
when using a grinder
c.
when using any wrench
b.
when using a hammer
d.
at all times
 

 24. 

A piston with a hole melted through the crown must likely failed due to exposure to...
a.
dirt in the engine
c.
detonation
b.
lack of lubrication
d.
overheated engine
 

 25. 

When measuring an engine cylinder for wear, the most appropriate of the tools listed below to use is a...
a.
ruler
c.
inside micrometer
b.
outside micrometer
d.
small hole gauge
 

 26. 

When working on a small gasoline engine on a lawn mower, the service technician should...
a.
disconnect the spark plug wire from the spark plug to prevent accidental starting.
b.
fill the fuel tank to the top to ensure the fuel vapors are not present.
c.
disconnect all safety devices so they don’t interfere with the diagnosis.
d.
remove the blade to prevent injury during diagnosis and repair.
 

 27. 

The first step in the diagnosis and testing program is...
a.
know the system
c.
list possible causes
b.
operate the engine
d.
test your conclusions
 

 28. 

One full revolution of the thimble on a micrometer is equal to what measurement expressed as a decimal?
a.
1.000
b.
0.250
c.
0.050
d.
0.025
 

 29. 

An application of a dial indicator would be...
a.
checking spark plug gap
b.
checking crankshaft end play
c.
measuring rod bearing to crankshaft clearance
d.
measuring piston ring end-gap
 

 30. 

When should the high-idle (top operating speed) of a lawn mower be set above the values recommended by the manufacturer?
a.
When expecting to work in heave grass conditions
b.
When the customer complains of low power
c.
If the engine governor is “hunting”
d.
The high idle should never be set higher than recommended
 

 31. 

Improperly torqued head bolts are likely to result in...
a.
warped head
c.
scored cylinder wall
b.
broken valve
d.
engine out of time
 

 32. 

Failure from insufficient lubrication in a small gas engine is characterized by...
a.
Discoloration of the connecting rod
c.
connecting rod near the piston pin
b.
ridge near the top of the cylinder
d.
holes in the piston
 

 33. 

On the Briggs & Stratton Engine model number, 92902, the first one or two digits tells the...
a.
Basic design series
c.
carburetor type
b.
cubic inch displacement
d.
crankshaft position
 

 34. 

When diagnosing a failed engine, you find excessive cylinder wear, a ridge at the top of the cylinder and a lack of cross hatch on the cylinder wall.  These symptoms are most likely a result of...
a.
dirt in the engine
c.
overheating
b.
lack of lubrication
d.
overspeeding
 

 35. 

If an engine is found to have failed due to dirt ingestion, you should inspect or check...
a.
air cleaner element
c.
crankcase breather operation
b.
oil type
d.
spark plug gap
 

 36. 

If an air-cooled small gasoline engine is found to have failed due to overheating, you should check...
a.
carburetor adjustment
c.
valve clearance
b.
spark plug gap
d.
antifreeze level
 

 37. 

To extinguish an oil-based fire in a small engine repair facility, you should choose which of the following?
a.
Type A.
b.
Type B.
c.
Type C.
d.
Type D.
 

 38. 

When removing the flywheel of small-engine, the most appropriate method is...
a.
rap on it with a hammer to loosen it.
b.
use a pry-bar between the flywheel and crankcase
c.
use the appropriate flywheel puller
d.
use a torch
 

 39. 

If a valve is broken off, which parts will likely become damaged?
a.
the crankshaft and connecting rod
c.
the cylinder head, valve seat, and piston
b.
the camshaft and lifters
d.
the cam lobe and guide
 

 40. 

A permanent split-capacitor induction electric motor would be suitable for use on a ____.
a.
feed grinder
c.
large irrigation pump
b.
grain auger
d.
variable speed ventilation fan
 

 41. 

An electric relay is used to:
a.
reduce the current requirements in the load circuit
b.
provide over current protection for the load circuit
c.
permit a control circuit voltage being different than the load circuit voltage
d.
reduce the conductor size for the load circuit
 

 42. 

A ____ is used to reduce the voltage from 240 to 120 volts.
a.
motor generator
b.
diode
c.
transformer
d.
time relay
 

 43. 

Which of the following motor types would you select for a 1/2 hp air compressor?
a.
capacitor start-induction run
c.
split phase
b.
shaded pole
d.
3-phase induction
 

 44. 

A ____ is a light sensing control.
a.
thermostat
c.
hydraulic photostat
b.
photo-cell
d.
time-delay switch
 

 45. 

The type of electric motor used in the time clock control circuit is
a.
split phase
b.
synchronous
c.
capacitor
d.
DC
 

 46. 

An overloaded motor which is correctly protected will ____.
a.
overheat and burn out
b.
run faster
c.
run slower without overheating
d.
stop because the protecting device will open the circuit
 

 47. 

The amount of continuous “overload” a motor can withstand at its rated Hz and voltage is indicted on the nameplate as ____.
a.
Service Factor
c.
Hertz
b.
Code
d.
Insulation Class
 

 48. 

A motor which is to run for over 60 minutes at a time is classified as ____.
a.
intermittent duty
c.
hourly duty
b.
continuous duty
d.
sporadic duty
 

 49. 

A capacitor start-capacitor run motor has ____.
a.
capacitors for starting and running circuits
b.
low starting torque
c.
is manufactured in less than 1 HP sizes only
d.
is designed for easy-to-start loads
 

 50. 

Motor enclosures include drip-proof, explosion-proof and _____.
a.
splash-resistant
b.
dust-free
c.
sealed
d.
totally-enclosed
 

 51. 

Which electrical term on the electric motor nameplate identifies the cycles per second?
a.
RPM
b.
service factor
c.
hertz
d.
phase
 

 52. 

The engine used to power a 3-kW standby alternator should have a minimum rating of what horsepower?
a.
30 hp
b.
45 hp
c.
60 hp
d.
75 hp
 

 53. 

A 4-poles alternator will have a rotational speed of:
a.
1200 rpm
b.
1800 rpm
c.
2400 rpm
d.
3600 rpm
 

 54. 

Which of the following electric motors would not be called alternating current types?
a.
single phase
b.
three phase
c.
universal
d.
DC
 

 55. 

The pushbutton stations controlling the electric motor have “start” and “stop” switches.
a.
the “stop” buttons are in parallel circuits
b.
the “start” buttons are in parallel circuits
c.
the connections alternate between stations
d.
the “start” and “stop” buttons are in parallel circuits
 

 56. 

The contacts of a magnetic motor starter are held together by ____.
a.
centrifugal
b.
electromagnetic
c.
atmospheric
d.
centripetal
 

 57. 

Which of the following motors would you select for a 10 hp irrigation pump?
a.
Capacitor start-induction run
c.
Split phase
b.
Shaded pole
d.
3-phase induction
 

 58. 

In a circuit that contain inductance, the current ____ the voltage.
a.
leads
c.
lags
b.
is in phase with
d.
is 33 degrees out of phase with
 

 59. 

If the shaft of an electric motor turns a 1725 rpm, and the motor operates from a 60-Hz, ac supply, what type of motor is it?
a.
Synchronous motor
c.
Permanent magnetic motor
b.
Induction motor
d.
Universal motor
 

 60. 

If a 1/2”=1’ scale is being used, a line 3-1/4” long on a drawing would represent an actual object _____ long.
a.
3 feet 3 inches
c.
2 feet 4 inches
b.
6 feet 6 inches
d.
5 feet 5 inches
 

 61. 

Which industrial fuel gas combined with oxygen provides the hottest neutral flame for cutting metal?
a.
acetylene
b.
natural gas
c.
Mapp gas®
d.
propane
 

 62. 

A (An) ______ shows the object in a tilted position so that the top, front, and one side are visible.
a.
isometric drawing
c.
perspective drawing
b.
oblique drawing
d.
cross-sectional drawing
 

 63. 

A (An) _____ is a series of dashes that indicate the presence of unseen objects.
a.
border line
b.
center line
c.
object line
d.
hidden line
 

 64. 

To reduce the brilliance of light and to screen out harmful infrared and ultra-violet rays given off when performing the shielding metal arc welding or gas metal arc (SMAW or GMAW) process, the welding helmet should be equipped with a _____ filter lens.
a.
#5 shade
b.
#10 shade
c.
#15 shade
d.
#20 shade
 

 65. 

The types of stress of importance in structural design and analysis are ______.
a.
tension, compression, shear, and torsion
b.
rust and corrosion
c.
tension and compression only
d.
hydration and oxidation
 

 66. 

The unit of measure used to show the flow rate of shielding gas during a GMAW or FCAW process is _____________.
a.
cubic feet per hour (cfh)
c.
pounds per square inch (psi)
b.
cubic feet per minute (cfm)
d.
gallons per minute (gpm)
 

 67. 

The primary purpose of the shielding gases emitted around the nozzle tip during the GMAW or FCAW process is to ________.
a.
cool the torch handle and nozzle
b.
prevent contamination of the arc, molten puddle, and the solidifying weld from atmospheric oxygen and nitrogen
c.
cool the hand of the person welding
d.
rapidly cool the weld joint for proper fusion
 

 68. 

The shielding gases commonly used with GMAW or dual-shield FCAW processes are _______.
a.
argon or carbon monoxide
c.
oxygen and acetylene
b.
argon, carbon dioxide, or helium
d.
oxygen and natural gas
 

 69. 

A situation when working pressure gradually increases on a regulator working pressure gauge after the flame is extinguished and the torch valves are closed, is known as ________.
a.
advance
b.
creep
c.
flash back
d.
reverse-flow
 

 70. 

What is the scientific elemental symbol for the element known as iron?
a.
Ir
b.
Cu
c.
Fe
d.
Ni
 

 71. 

What is the most common type of steel used in the construction of agricultural mechanics projects?
a.
cast iron
b.
mild steel
c.
tool steel
d.
wrought iron
 

 72. 

__________ is the process of heating two pieces of metal to the point of melting and the melted metals flow together.
a.
Brazing
b.
Soldering
c.
Sweating
d.
Fusion welding
 

 73. 

SMAW utilizes a _________.
a.
filler wire and cover gas
c.
flux cored wire
b.
flux coated rod or electrode
d.
tungsten electrode
 

 74. 

What type of flame is used for most oxy-fuel welding procedures when welding on mild steel?
a.
acetylene
b.
carburizing
c.
neutral
d.
oxidizing
 

 75. 

Which of the following welding processes is the most similar to MIG (GMAW)?
a.
FCAW
b.
PAW
c.
SMAW
d.
TIG
 

 76. 

A depression at the toe of a weld, which is below the surface of the base metal, is known as ___________.
a.
gouging
b.
penetration
c.
root pass
d.
undercut
 

 77. 

A fill-freeze electrode such as an E-6013 can be used to weld in ______ positions.
a.
all
c.
flat and horizontal up
b.
flat only
d.
flat, vertical down, and overhead
 

 78. 

In SMAW, arc length is primarily determined by?
a.
amperage
c.
electrode diameter
b.
base metal thickness
d.
type of welding current
 

 79. 

The final digit in the AWS electrode identification system designates?
a.
coating and current
c.
metal type
b.
position
d.
strength
 

 80. 

Atmospheric air is composed of:
a.
21% oxygen
b.
78% oxygen
c.
.9% oxygen
d.
.03% oxygen
 

 81. 

The most abundant component in atmospheric air is:
a.
Nitrogen
b.
Oxygen
c.
Argon
d.
Helium
 

 82. 

Animal respiration and manure decomposition release:
a.
Carbon dioxide
c.
Ammonia
b.
Carbon monoxide
d.
Nitrogen
 

 83. 

The most toxic gas likely released from manure storage in confinement systems is:
a.
Ammonia
c.
Hydrogen Sulfide
b.
Nitrogen
d.
Methane
 

 84. 

The most hazardous risk encountered from entering a manure storage pit is from:
a.
Drowning
b.
Chemical burns
c.
Poisoning
d.
Asphyxiation
 

 85. 

Respiratory problems for workers in a dusty confinement building can be adequately addressed by:
a.
Wearing a bandana over the nose and mouth
b.
Increasing the ventilation rate
c.
Increasing fat in the ration
d.
Wearing a .3 micron dust mask
 

 86. 

The wind chill factor:
a.
Affects the temperature of the environmental controlled building.
b.
Affects the temperature of the livestock in an environmental controlled building.
c.
Affects the furnace efficiency in an environmental controlled building.
d.
Affects the ventilation system in an environmental controlled building.
 

 87. 

Excess water and water vapor in an environmental building can be controlled by:
a.
Increasing the ventilation rate.
b.
Decreasing the outside air humidity.
c.
Warming the air by fully populating the building with more livestock.
d.
Installing humidistats with thermostats.
 

 88. 

Which of the following statements are true?
a.
As air temperature rises, air can hold more moisture and its relative humidity increases.
b.
As air temperature rises, air can hold less moisture and its relative humidity decreases.
c.
As air temperature decreases, air can hold more moisture and its relative humidity decreases.
d.
Moisture holding capacity of air nearly doubles for every 20 degree rise in temperature.
 

 89. 

When examining a mechanical ventilation system a negative pressure system is found.  This means:
a.
The system has many negative or undesirable characteristics.
b.
The fan system sucks (blows air out of the building).
c.
The fans blow and suck air into and out of the building.
d.
Air distribution is controlled by shutters and louvers.
 

 90. 

Continuous air slots with adjustable baffles are most common with what type of ventilation system?
a.
Positive pressure systems.
c.
Neutral pressure systems.
b.
Negative pressure systems.
d.
Natural ventilation systems.
 

 91. 

Manure pit ventilation reduces manure gas and odors in the animal area.  Design pit ventilation to:
a.
Supply at least the cold weather ventilation rate.
b.
Supply at least the odor removal ventilation rate.
c.
Supply the warm weather ventilation rate.
d.
Supply the manure gas and pathogen rate.
 

 92. 

A good insulating material has:
a.
A low R-value.
c.
A radiant heat loss.
b.
A high dew point.
d.
A high resistance to heat flow.
 

 93. 

Modified environmental buildings rely on:
a.
Furnaces to provide heat for animal comfort.
b.
Animal heat to provide for animal comfort.
c.
A combination of furnaces and animal heat to provide for animal comfort.
d.
Temperate weather conditions to provide for animal comfort.
 

 94. 

Most building materials are highly permeable to moisture and are not good vapor retarders.  However, many moisture problems can be alleviated by:
a.
Installing solid concrete walls grouted with a vapor retardant mortar.
b.
Installing insulation board.
c.
Installing a vapor retarder on the cooler side of insulating materials.
d.
Installing a vapor retarder on the warmer side of insulating materials.
 

 95. 

With regard to fan selection for a confinement building which statement is most correct?
a.
Axial fans are common in livestock buildings.
b.
Radial fans are common in livestock buildings.
c.
Centrifugal fans are common in livestock buildings.
d.
Centrifugal fans operate on a lower static pressure than do axial fans.
 

 96. 

Within a tightly constructed building and a negative pressure ventilation system:
a.
Fan location is important to air quality.
b.
Fan location is unimportant to air quality.
c.
Fans should be located on the windward side to improve efficiency.
d.
Fans must be located within 25 feet of air inlets.
 

 97. 

The most common type of thermostat in a livestock building is:
a.
Bi-metallic
b.
Liquid filled
c.
Solid state
d.
Vapor filled
 

 98. 

Humidistats have a common problem with:
a.
Sensing humidity rather than temperature.
b.
Maintaining calibration.
c.
Controlling ventilation rate.
d.
Inert gas interaction.
 

 99. 

As you start to move pigs into a brand new pig nursery, the building seems to be colder than desired; all systems including the furnace appear to be operating properly.  What is the probable cause of the problem?
a.
Low animal density.
c.
Insulation is wet.
b.
Improper building design.
d.
Over-ventilation.
 



 
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