Name: 
 

2001 State Agricultural Engineering Technology Test



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Factors to consider when locating buildings on a farmstead are
a.
fire safety.
b.
freedom from odors.
c.
space for moving of machinery
d.
safety for family in the outside living area.
e.
all of these are correct.
 

 2. 

When selecting and planning for a building site be sure and check regulations with governmental agencies such as the
a.
local environmental agency.
d.
soil conservation service
b.
village or city codes.
e.
all of these are correct
c.
county or borough.
 

 3. 

Items classified as utilities and services are
a.
electricity
d.
road location- size and maintenance
b.
telephone
e.
all of these are correct
c.
water
 

 4. 

Posts and timbers are wood products of this basic dimension or greater.
a.
1” T-W
c.
5” T-W
b.
2/4” 7-W
d.
none of these are correct
 

 5. 

A project requires 7 pieces - 2” x 8” x 144”- the board feet is
a.
8
b.
112
c.
120
d.
1205
 

 6. 

A ______ is used to carry loads over doors and windows .
a.
cripple stud
c.
soffit
e.
sill plate
b.
header
d.
facia
 

 7. 

A _______ is a trim board nailed to the vertical cut at the end of a rafter.
a.
sole plate
c.
header
e.
soffit
b.
top plate
d.
facia
 

 8. 

The horizontal members that siding is attached to in pole construction are called
a.
purlins
d.
poles
b.
headers
e.
none of these are correct
c.
girts
 

 9. 

Round poles are classified according to
a.
top circumference
d.
length
b.
average circumference
e.
none of these are correct
c.
bottom circumference
 

 10. 

Concrete hardens due to a chemical reaction called
a.
dehydration
b.
hydration
c.
drying
d.
electrolysis
e.
hydrolysis
 

 11. 

When ordering ready-mix concrete for the construction of a chemical storage or rinse pad structure, it is recommended that Type II or Type V concrete can be used because they are more resistant to the damaging effects of
a.
sulfates used in many fertilizers & pesticides.
b.
the ozone layer.
c.
evaporation.
d.
expansion and contracting due to freezing.
 

 12. 

A bag of cement
a.
weighs 84 pounds
b.
weighs 94 pounds
c.
weighs 100 pounds
d.
contains one cubic foot of cement
e.
both weighs 94 pounds and contains one cubic foot of cement
 

 13. 

Before concrete is placed, following procedure(s) should be completed.
a.
compact the subgrade
c.
dampen the subgrade
b.
level subgrade to desired slope
d.
all of these are correct
 

 14. 

This tool produces a very smooth finish on fresh concrete.
a.
Broom
c.
Bull float
e.
Steel trowel
b.
Wood float
d.
Magnesium float
 

 15. 

When constructing a chemical storage structure, the air inlet vents should be located ________ to help remove heavier than air toxic and flammable vapors.
a.
within 12 inches from the floor
c.
at eye level
b.
greater than 12 inches from the floor
d.
as high as possible on the walls
 

 16. 

_______ refers to structures built around pesticide and fertilizer storage facilities to contain products that have escaped out to leaks, spills, fire, impacts, vandalism or ruptured tanks.
a.
Secondary containment
c.
Primary containment
b.
Absorbent pillow or “pigs”
d.
None of these correct
 

 17. 

Pesticides should be stored in
a.
the machinery storage building.
b.
the farm shop.
c.
a separate building away from other farm structures.
d.
spraying equipment.
 

 18. 

When working with pesticides, one should wear
a.
safety goggles with flat-fold side shields
b.
safety goggles with eye cup side shields
c.
dust goggles
d.
goggles with hooded vents.
 

 19. 

The foundation for a chemical storage building is most likely a _________ foundation.
a.
slab-on-grade
c.
pile
b.
basement
d.
crawl space
 

 20. 

Which of the following is a commonly used wood preservative material?
a.
galvanizing
c.
hydrogen sulfide
b.
penta
d.
malathion
 

 21. 

A preventive maintenance program can help
a.
reduce part failure.
c.
save the operating costs.
b.
keep equipment safe.
d.
all of these correct.
 

 22. 

The air intake system of the engine includes
a.
muffler
b.
air cleaner
c.
carburetor
d.
turbo charger
e.
air cleaner and turbo charger are correct.
 

 23. 

The number-one cylinder on most engines is
a.
located close to the front of the engine.
b.
the back cylinder - rear of the engine
c.
varies with number of cylinders
d.
varies - whether a vee or straight - line engine
 

 24. 

The diesel fuel system transfer pump pushes fuel to the
a.
injector nozzles.
c.
combustion chamber.
b.
injector pump.
d.
auxiliary tank.
 

 25. 

The diesel fuel system injection nozzle ________ and sprays the fuel into the cylinders.
a.
times
b.
atomizes
c.
sprays iron
d.
filters
 

 26. 

Near top dead center of the compression stroke is the diesel engine _______ is injected into the cylinder.
a.
air
b.
fuel
c.
air and fuel
d.
water
 

 27. 

Each time the fuel filters or fuel lines are removed from the diesel fuel system you must
a.
bleed the lines of air.
c.
run a solvent through the lines.
b.
pump air into the lines.
d.
fill the fuel tank.
 

 28. 

This part of the diesel fuel system requires the most service by the operator.
a.
injection pump
b.
injector nozzles
c.
fuel filters
d.
transfer pump
 

 29. 

Battery specific gravity is checked with a(an)
a.
volt meter
b.
hydrometer
c.
AVR tester
d.
OHM meter
 

 30. 

When connecting jumper cables to boost a battery, make the last connection with the negative cable at the
a.
battery negative terminal
c.
frame of the machine
b.
battery positive terminal
d.
starter
 

 31. 

The main functions of the differential is to
a.
transmit power around the corner to the drive axles.
b.
lock both wheels together.
c.
allow each drive wheel to rotate at a different speed and still propel its own load.
d.
all of these are correct.
e.
transmit power around the corner to the drive axles and allow each drive wheel to rotate at a different speed and still propel its own load main functions of the differential.
 

 32. 

Possible maintenance problems with hydraulic systems include
a.
incorrect oil in the system.
d.
not enough oil in the reservoir.
b.
leaking connections.
e.
all of these are correct.
c.
clogged or dirty oil filters.
 

 33. 

Oil bubbles or foaming oil in a hydraulic system can be caused by
a.
water in the system.
c.
air leak in the system .
b.
low fluid level.
d.
pressure too high.
 

 34. 

Battery specific gravity is an indication of the
a.
state of charge
b.
battery capacity
c.
battery voltage
d.
battery current
 

 35. 

Milky oil in the hydraulic system can be caused by
a.
water in the system
c.
air leak in the system
b.
low fluid level
d.
pressure too high
 

 36. 

They best spray tip to select for superior wear life is
a.
ceramic
b.
brass
c.
polymer
d.
stainless steel
 

 37. 

Nozzle tips having a flow rate of _______ percent more or less than the average of all nozzles on that sprayer should be cleaned or replaced.
a.
20
c.
10
b.
5
d.
15
 

 38. 

Chemical application rates can be increased by
a.
increasing pressure at the nozzle tip.
c.
reducing the speed of the tractor.
b.
using a larger nozzle tip.
d.
all of these are correct.
 

 39. 

In general, the tips that produce the smallest droplet size are _________.
a.
hallow cone tips.
c.
even spray tips.
b.
flat spray tips.
d.
flooding tips.
 

 40. 

A _________ tip was designed for band application of chemicals and is NOT recommended for broadcast applications.
a.
hallow cone.
b.
flat spray.
c.
even spray.
d.
flooding.
 

 41. 

The inherent poisonous potency of a compound under experimental conditions is referred to as the compound’s
a.
use hazard.
c.
poisoning effect.
b.
toxicity.
d.
noxious effect.
 

 42. 

A pesticide label that contains the signal word WARNING in bold print is required for all moderately toxic compounds and is classified as
a.
Category I.
b.
Category II.
c.
Category III.
d.
Category IV.
 

 43. 

A pesticide label that contains the signal words DANGER-POISON in bold print and the crossbones symbol represents a category of toxicity and is classified as
a.
Category I
b.
Category II
c.
Category III
d.
Category IV
 

 44. 

The risk or danger of poisoning when a chemical is used for applied is sometimes referred to as the chemical’s
a.
use hazard
c.
poisoning effect
b.
toxicity
d.
noxious effect
 

 45. 

A chemical substance that exerts an injurious effect in a majority of cases when it comes into contact with living organisms during normal use is an adequate scientific definition of
a.
a hazard
b.
toxicity
c.
a poisoning
d.
noxious
 

 46. 

A pesticide label that contains the signal word CAUTION in bold print is required for slightly toxic compounds and is classified as
a.
Category I
b.
Category II
c.
Category III
d.
Category IV
 

 47. 

A pesticide label that contains the signal words CAUTION “Keep Out of Reach of Children” in bold print is required of all compounds having unqualified claims for safety is classified as
a.
Category I
b.
Category II
c.
Category III
d.
Category IV
 

 48. 

A material included in the herbicide formulation or added to the spray tank to modify application characteristics is called
a.
an emulsifier
b.
a surfactant
c.
an adjuvant
d.
an addictive
 

 49. 

A material in a herbicide formation that improves dispersing, spreading, wetting, or other properties of a liquid is referred to as
a.
an emulsifier
b.
a surfactant
c.
an adjuvant
d.
an additive
 

 50. 

Materials that thicken the herbicide spray solution and reduce the number of very small satellite droplets is referred to as
a.
spreader-sticker agents
c.
antifoam agents
b.
drift control agents
d.
compatibility agents
 

 51. 

Herbicides should always be sprayed _________ to minimize the spray drift hazard.
a.
when winds are less than 3 mph and no greater than 5 mph.
b.
just before sunrise and just after sunset.
c.
on calm overcast days.
d.
in the middle of the day when the sun is the hottest.
 

 52. 

The amount of drift an application of herbicide may be attributed to is
a.
droplet size, wind velocity, and speed of travel.
b.
droplet size, wind velocity, and rate of application.
c.
droplet size, wind velocity, and spray release height.
d.
droplet size, wind velocity, and the amount of additives in the mixture.
 

 53. 

Liquid chemical drift can be described as
a.
when the application equipment does NOT stay in the rows of a field.
b.
when chemicals do NOT stay in the intended area.
c.
when a spray nozzle is clogged.
d.
none of these are correct.
 

 54. 

Liquid contact pesticides refer to pesticides that
a.
knock insects off of plants.
b.
kill insects by coming in contact with the insect.
c.
must be applied when a garden hose.
d.
none of these are correct.
 

 55. 

Rinsate refers to
a.
water tanks used to wash away leaks and spills.
b.
containers that are used once and then disposed.
c.
a thin layer of granular material placed on top of a prepared subgrade.
d.
water that has been used to clean pesticide.
 

 56. 

Secondary containment refers to
a.
structures build around storage facilities to contain products that have leaked or spilled.
b.
shovels and sand used to cover over leaks and spills.
c.
water tanks used to wash away leaks and spills.
d.
none of these are correct.
 

 57. 

The NFPA classifies stored liquid pesticide as flammable if the liquid.
a.
has a flash point at or above 100º F.
c.
has a flash point below 100º F.
b.
smells like gasoline.
d.
burns when ignited.
 

 58. 

Worker safety equipment that should be available in a pesticide handling area should include
a.
an emergency shower.
b.
an eyewash.
c.
the current Material Safety Data Sheets.
d.
All of these are correct.
 

 59. 

To reduce the risk of drift when applying liquid pesticides, one should select
a.
a contact type of pesticide.
c.
a systemic type of pesticide.
b.
a slow moving applicator.
d.
a nozzle that produces course droplets.
 

 60. 

In chaining a 100 ft steel tape, pins were exchanged twice and the rear chainman has 6 pins his/her hand.  If the distance from the last pin is 40.5 feet, the total distance chained would be
a.
256.5 ft.
b.
2660.5 ft.
c.
1640.5 ft.
d.
2640.5 ft.
 

 61. 

All of the information necessary to build a structure as it was designed and engineered can be found in the
a.
specifications.
b.
project plans.
c.
drawing.
d.
building permit.
 

 62. 

Estimating the amount of time it will take to do each of a construction job is called
a.
scheduling.
b.
organizing.
c.
controlling.
d.
contracting.
 

 63. 

Labor unions help workers bargain for
a.
higher wages.
c.
shorter work hours.
b.
safer working conditions.
d.
all of these are correct.
 

 64. 

Computers are used in engineering for
a.
designing.
c.
record keeping.
b.
engineering.
d.
all of these are correct.
 

 65. 

An application to form a corporation is call the
a.
articles of incorporation
c.
incorporation form.
b.
application for corporation
d.
stock certificates.
 

 66. 

Policy decisions of a corporation are made by the
a.
board of directors.
c.
chief operating officer.
b.
chairman of the board.
d.
president.
 

 67. 

When two companies combine to work on a certain project, the ownership becomes a
a.
franchise.
b.
joint venture.
c.
merger.
d.
proprietorship.
 

 68. 

When the owner and a general contractor discuss the terms of a contract they are
a.
bidding.
b.
competing.
c.
hiring.
d.
negotiating.
 

 69. 

When a bid is advertised, it usually states
a.
the type of work.
b.
the location of the project.
c.
where to obtain plans and specifications.
d.
All of these are correct.
 

 70. 

A fixed-price contract is also called
a.
a unit contract.
c.
cost-plus contract.
b.
lump-sum contract.
d.
balance-of-payment contract.
 

 71. 

Of the following structures, the one that is a commercial building is a
a.
condominium.
c.
school.
b.
house.
d.
none of these are correct.
 

 72. 

to gain support from the taxpayers of a public project a _________ is passed around and signed.
a.
bond.
b.
certificate.
c.
mortgage.
d.
petition.
 

 73. 

Accessibility, physical characteristics, and utility location are some factors to consider when
a.
choosing a contractor.
c.
selecting a site.
b.
designing a structure.
d.
estimating a structure’s cost.
 

 74. 

the price a borrower pays for using a lending institution’s money is called the
a.
rate.
b.
premium.
c.
interest.
d.
base.
 

 75. 

The two most important aspects of design are
a.
appearance and cost.
c.
size and function.
b.
cost and size.
d.
function and appearance.
 

 76. 

Written information that cannot be shown easily on a drawing is called
a.
the architect’s note.
c.
the client’s notes.
b.
the engineer’s notes.
d.
specifications.
 

 77. 

On a materials list, the cost of material per selling unit is called
a.
cost extension.
b.
unit extension.
c.
pricing unit.
d.
unit cost.
 

 78. 

A profit and loss statement on a project is found in the
a.
audit.
c.
financial accounting.
b.
profit and loss record.
d.
financial statement.
 

 79. 

The person responsible for estimating the cost of a engineering job is the
a.
estimator.
b.
clerk.
c.
office manager.
d.
designer.
 

 80. 

In an engineering firm, the person responsible for the legal requirements of a project is the
a.
clerk.
b.
office manager.
c.
receptionist.
d.
secretary.
 

 81. 

A double pole-single throw switch would be used for
a.
disconnecting the black and white on the feed to 120 volt appliances.
b.
changing the direction of flow from one energized line to another.
c.
disconnecting the two “hot” lines feeding 240 volt equipment.
d.
can not be used in any wiring situation.
 

 82. 

Sixty cycle AC alternates from a maximum positive value to a maximum negative value
a.
60 times a second.
c.
60 time an hour.
b.
60 time a minute.
d.
none of these are correct.
 

 83. 

A kilowatt is equal to
a.
10 watts.
b.
100 watts.
c.
1000 watts.
d.
10000 watts.
 

 84. 

How are the input and output factors handled when checking the efficiency of an appliance as an energy converter?
a.
The output wattage is divided by the input wattage times 100
b.
The output and input wattages are multiplied and divided by 100
c.
The input wattage is divided by the output wattage times 100
d.
The output wattage is divided by 100 and multiplied by twice the input wattage
 

 85. 

OHMS law formulas state that
a.
V=L*R
d.
all of these are correct
b.
L=V/R
e.
none of these are correct
c.
R=V/L
 

 86. 

A GFCI is a device that
a.
is used to protect a person from current flow from a defective appliance.
b.
opens a two wire circuit when an imbalance of current occurs which is .051.
c.
provides protection of a 3-wire circuit divided into 2-wire circuits.
d.
is used to provide overload protection for floor lamps.
 

 87. 

The basic purpose of electrical control devices is
a.
to perform operations automatically.
b.
for starting and stopping electrical equipment.
c.
convenience,
d.
safety.
 

 88. 

Which of the following types of starting devices would allow the use of automated-remote or multiple starting locations?
a.
Toggle switch
c.
Manual starter
b.
Magnetic starter
d.
Disconnect switch
 

 89. 

Thermostats are usually used to measure
a.
pressure
b.
temperature
c.
humidity
d.
dew point
 

 90. 

The element in a humidistat senses changes in
a.
moisture
b.
pressure
c.
electric current
d.
temperature
 

 91. 

The device used to control a large motor that is actuated by a photoelectric cell is call
a.
thermostat
b.
relay
c.
solenoid
d.
transistor
 

 92. 

If electric motors are not cooled properly problems can occur by
a.
insulation breaking down in the windings.
b.
shorts developing in the windings.
c.
an increase in amperage draw resulting in a voltage drop.
d.
all of these are correct.
 

 93. 

Ambient temperature is a standard for the
a.
temperature of the air surrounding the electric motor.
b.
temperature after operating the electric motor thirty minutes.
c.
temperature of the air inside the motor.
d.
none of these are correct.
 

 94. 

A split phase-start motor can be reversed by
a.
changing the way it is plugged in.
b.
reversing leads of the starting windings.
c.
rotating the starting switch.
d.
changing positions of the bushes.
 

 95. 

Which of the following type of motors would you expect to find on portable power tools?
a.
Repulsion-induction
c.
Split phase
b.
Universal
d.
Shaded pole
 

 96. 

The term used in hydraulics that describes a fluid under pressure is
a.
reserve pressure.
b.
hydrolysis.
c.
cavitation.
d.
hydrostatic.
 

 97. 

The fluid output of a hydraulic pump can be measured in
a.
pounds per square inch.
c.
linear feet per minute.
b.
square feet of surface area.
d.
gallons per minute.
 

 98. 

Which is NOT a type of hydraulic pump?
a.
Diaphragm
b.
Vane
c.
Gear
d.
Piston
 

 99. 

Removing air from the hydraulic cylinder is called
a.
hydrolysis
c.
cylinder creeping
b.
bleeding
d.
misalignment
 

 100. 

Hydraulic pumps produce
a.
fluid pressure.
c.
compressed fluid.
b.
fluid flow.
d.
all of these are correct.
 



 
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