Name: 
 

2002 National Agricultural Mechanics Test



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

What drive belt is commonly used on combines to drive light loads with pulleys?
a.
Round belt
b.
V-belt
c.
Flat belt
d.
Serrated-belt
 

 2. 

On the grain handling equipment, what drive chain is used for heavy loads operating at low speeds?
a.
Roller chain
c.
Silent chain
b.
Plain chain
d.
Detachable link chain
 

 3. 

Which of the following is the common cause of scored gear teeth in the drive system of a combine?
a.
Excessive backlash of gears
b.
Intermittent overloading of gears
c.
Dirt, grit, or metal particles on the gear teeth
d.
Excessive gear speed
 

 4. 

On a combine, where is a reciprocating drive commonly used?
a.
To operate the shakers
c.
To drive the cutterbar
b.
To power the grain auger
d.
To control the steering mechanism
 

 5. 

On a combine or agricultural tractor, the appropriate wheel slippage ranges from:
a.
0 to 2 percent
c.
20 to 25 percent
b.
10 to 15 percent
d.
30 to 35 percent
 

 6. 

When a tractor tire is correctly filled with liquid ballast, what percentage of the total space should be liquid?
a.
10 percent
b.
25 percent
c.
75 percent
d.
100 percent
 

 7. 

In grain handling systems, hydraulic cylinder problems are commonly caused by:
a.
Excessive heat in the hydraulic system
b.
Insufficient hydraulic pressure
c.
Dirt in the hydraulic system
d.
Water in the hydraulic system
 

 8. 

If the oil in a combine’s hydraulic system is foaming, what is the most likely the problem?
a.
The hydraulic oil is dirty.
b.
There is too much water in the hydraulic oil.
c.
There is insufficient hydraulic oil in the reservoir.
d.
The hydraulic pump is not pumping.
 

 9. 

The center of gravity for a skid steer loader ______.
a.
Is always in the same place
b.
Is moved lower when the bucket is raised
c.
Changes as the position of the bucket and loader changes
d.
Does not affect the loader’s safe operation of stability
 

 10. 

For the safe operation of a skid steer loader, the operator must:
a.
Wear gloves, a hard hat, safety glasses, and a respirator
b.
Keep the bucket at least five feet above the ground while moving forward
c.
Be properly secured in the seat with a belt or other restraint
d.
Move the loader only in reserve when the bucket is raised
 

 11. 

When a person must reach into the cab of a skid steer loader, the following safety criteria should be followed:
a.
The bucket should be lowered to the ground and the engine turned off.
b.
The transmission should be in neutral and the bucket should be at mid-height.
c.
The parking brake should be set and the bucket should be raised.
d.
A rollover protective structure should be in place.
 

 12. 

Which of the following two factors directly influence the field capacity of agricultural equipment?
a.
Travel speed and operating efficiency.
b.
Machine weight and ground clearance.
c.
Power takeoff (PTO) speed and temperature.
d.
Machine height and implement width.
 

 13. 

The power output of a tractor’s power takeoff (PTO) depends on:
a.
Torque and rotational seed
b.
Wheel diameter and travel speed
c.
Fuel consumption and engine temperature
d.
Hydraulic pressure and flow rate
 

 14. 

Most tractor manufacturers suggest refueling at the end of the day _______.
a.
To prevent moisture accumulation in the fuel tank overnight.
b.
Because fuel is less dense in the evenings and the tractor’s tank will hold more fuel.
c.
To reduce the chance of combustion common with daytime refueling.
d.
Because in the morning, a cold tractor engine starts more easily with a full tank.
 

 15. 

What should be done to increase the amount of wheel slippage for a tractor with very little or no slippage?
a.
Add ballast to the tractor.
c.
Drive at a slower speed.
b.
Remove ballast from the tractor.
d.
Operate the tractor in a lower gear.
 

 16. 

If the forward visibility of a tractor operator is obstructed while transporting a large round bale with a front-end loader attachment, which of the following is the correct procedure?
a.
Stand up and hold on to the steering wheel while leaning out of the cab to see.
b.
Move the bucket to the highest position and drive quickly to the destination.
c.
Position the bale close to the ground and back the tractor so the operator can see.
d.
Have an assistance ride on top of the bale and give the driver verbal instructions.
 

 17. 

The torque specifications for a bolt is 3 foot-pounds. If a torque wrench calibrated in inch-pounds is used, how many inch-pounds are required to equal 3 foot-pounds?
a.
3 inch-pounds
b.
12 inch-pounds
c.
36 inch-pounds
d.
48 inch-pounds
 

 18. 

A skid steer loader uses two hydraulic cylinders that are 2.5 inches in diameters and 36 inches long. If the loader’s hydraulic system can generate a maximum pressure of 2,500 pounds per square inch, calculate the maximum force that each lift cylinder can produce?
Formulas: Force  =  Pressure  x  Cross Sectional Area of Piston
Area of Circle  = ¹    x (diameter)ª  ÷ 4
a.
6,250 pounds
c.
15,700 pounds
b.
12, 272 pounds
d.
40,087 pounds
 

 19. 

A portable auger is powered by an electric motor that rotates at 1725 revolutions per minute. If the auger is to turn at approximately 525 revolutions per minute and the pulley with a three-inch diameter pulley, what size pulley is required for the auger?
Formula: (diameter of pulley 1)  x  (speed of pulley 1)  =  (diameter of Pulley 2)  x  (Speed of Pulley 2)
a.
4 inch
b.
6 inch
c.
8 inch
d.
10 inch
 

 20. 

A combine travels at six miles per hour and has a grain head that is 30 feet wide. If it harvests 50 bushels of grain per acre, what is the average rate of grain harvest in bushels per minute?
a.
8.3 bushels per minute
c.
80.5 bushels per minute
b.
18.2 bushels per minute
d.
9,160.8 bushels per minute
 

 21. 

Currently and over the next few years, the US grain transportation infrastructure is faced with the complex problem of:
a.
Making loan payments on future market transactions
b.
Competing with railroads to transport grains from small rural communities
c.
The separation and storage of transgenic grains from the time of harvest to terminal markets
d.
The mandatory satellite tracking of trucks and trains carrying food grains
 

 22. 

Break-even analysis is the use of a simple mathematical formula to determine the sales level at which the business:
a.
Neither incurs a loss nor makes a profit
b.
Has only small amounts of profit and loss
c.
Neither of their variable costs equal their fixed costs
d.
Has their net sales revenue equal to their marginal costs
 

 23. 

An example of a variable cost for a grain elevator employing seasonal workers is:
a.
Monthly telephone charge for local calls
b.
Property tax on elevator
c.
Depreciation on a grain auger
d.
Overtime pay for hired labor
 

 24. 

Which of the following is correct with respect to the operation of loader equipment near the edge of a deep ditch?
a.
Raise the loader’s bucket up to keep the equipment’s center of gravity as high as possible.
b.
Disengage the transmission, do not use the brake, and let the equipment coast to the bottom of the ditch.
c.
Loader equipment should not be operated near the edge of deep ditches.
d.
Operate the equipment at high speeds when near a deep ditch.
 

 25. 

A suffocation hazard exists from the concentration of gasses in the grain storage bins. The most common danger is from:
a.
Carbon Dioxide (CO2) given off by spoiling grain
b.
Nitrogen Tetroxide (N2O4) given off through the aeration process
c.
Nitrogen Dioxide ( NO2 ) given off by the during process
d.
Hydrogen Sulfide (HSO4) given off by the grain respiration
 

 26. 

It is not safe to enter forage or grain storage structures when they are being loaded or unloaded. If a grain storage bin must be entered, what should be done before entering?
a.
Use a cell phone to maintain contact with someone in case of emergency
b.
Shut off, lock, ad tag the power to all conveying equipment for the facility
c.
Prepare a gas mask to be used if needed
d.
Remove shoes to allow crawling rather than walking on top of the grain
 

 27. 

The fixed costs associated with owning grain-handling equipment include:
a.
The operating costs not declared on income tax expenses
b.
Depreciation and opportunity costs
c.
Deprecation, interest, shelter, taxes, and insurance
d.
Taxes and government incentive payments
 

 28. 

Which type of fuel is most efficiently converted into work by a tractor’s engine?
a.
Gasoline
b.
Diesel
c.
LP-gas
d.
Propane
 

 29. 

Preparing the combine for highway travel can reduce the risk of a highway accident. A procedure that will reduce the risk of combine overturn is to:
a.
Move the auger to the unloading position
b.
Make sure the vehicle has a slow-moving vehicle (SMV) sign, lights, and reflectors
c.
Transport it on the highway before sunrise and after sunset
d.
Empty the grain tank
 

 30. 

In the 1990’s, the United States accounted for about what percent of the world’s wheat exports?
a.
10 %
b.
25 %
c.
33 %
d.
50 %
 

 31. 

Over the next few years the number of grain hauling semi trucks that farmers own will:
a.
Remain the same
c.
Decrease
b.
Increase
d.
Reduce to half
 

 32. 

A customer will store 14.000 bushels of wheat in an elevator for three months and the storage charge is 2.5 cents per bushel for each month is stored. How much will it cost to store the wheat for three months?
a.
$350
b.
$1,050
c.
$14,000
d.
$42,000
 

 33. 

The local sales tax is 7.85 % on items sold. What is the total charge, including the sales tax, for an item marked with a price of $36.78
a.
$36.86
b.
$37.57
c.
$39.67
d.
$44.63
 

 34. 

An 8-inch diameter auger loads 50,000 pounds of wheat in 45 minutes when operating (turning) at 450 revolutions per minute. If wheat has an average eight of 62 pounds per bushel, what is the material handling capacity of the auger in bushels per hour:
a.
806.5 bushels per hour
c.
62,000.0 bushels per hour
b.
1075.3 bushels per hour
d.
66,666.0 bushels per hour
 

 35. 

If the average weight of wheat is 60 pounds per bushel, how many bushels of wheat can be transported in a rail car with a maximum carrying capacity of 100 tons?
Note: 1 Ton = 2000 pounds
a.
33.3 bushels
b.
2160.0 bushels
c.
6000.0 bushels
d.
3333.3 bushels
 

 36. 

To ship wheat by barge, the rate is $13.00 per Metric Ton. If a barge has a maximum carrying capacity 35,000 Metric Tons, what is the charge for a fully loaded barge?
a.
$29,120
b.
$42,000
c.
$420,000
d.
$455,000
 

 37. 

The transport cost to ship wheat by rail is $46.74 per Metric Ton of wheat and each rail car will transport a maximum load of 90.9 Metric Tons. What is the total cost to ship 40 rail cars fully loaded with wheat?        Note: 1 Metric Ton = 2240 pounds
a.
$75.87
c.
$169,946.64
b.
$4,248.67
d.
$380,680,473.60
 

 38. 

The small boom sprayer has a 40-gallon tank and travels 125 feet in 20 seconds. What is the speed of the sprayer in miles per hour?    Note: 1 mile = 5280 feet,    1 hour = 3600 seconds
a.
4.26 miles per hour
c.
9.66 miles per  hour
b.
6.25 miles per hour
d.
15.23 miles per hour
 

 39. 

Determine the effective field capacity in acres per hour for a combine with a swath width of 24 feet, an operating speed of 4.5 miles per hour, and a field efficiency of 80 percent?
Note: 1 acre = 43,560 square-feet
a.
10.47 acres per hour
c.
19.20 acres per hour
b.
13.09 acres per hour
d.
24.00 miles per hour
 

 40. 

The average annual fixed cost involved in owning a truck to transport grain is $15,000 and the custom rate for hauling grain is 10 cents per bushel. The operating cost for the truck is ten cents per bushel. How many bushels must be transported in a year’s time to break even on the purchase of this truck?
Break Even Bushels = Ave. Annual Fixed $ ÷  (custom $ per Bu - Operating $ per BU)
a.
6,000  bushels
c.
600,000 bushels
b.
250,000 bushels
d.
2,500,000 bushels
 

 41. 

To turn an overhead light on and off with wall switches from four different locations, the following number and type of light switches are necessary.
a.
Two 3-way switches and two 4-way switches
b.
One 3-way switch and three 4-way switches
c.
Three 3way switches and one 4-way switch
d.
Four 4-way switches
 

 42. 

The electrical device that is used in electrical circuits to step-up or step-down voltage:
a.
Rectifier
b.
Capacitor
c.
Transformer
d.
Diode
 

 43. 

When a single switch simultaneously controls three lights, the lights are wired in ______ to allow each light to operate at rated voltage and amperage?
a.
Series
b.
Parallel
c.
A split connection with one in series and two in parallel
d.
A split connection with two in series and one in parallel
 

 44. 

Which of the following standard motor enclosures is appropriate, both functionally and economically, for an electrically powered feed grinder used out of doors?
a.
Open motor enclosure
c.
Totally enclosed motor enclosure
b.
Water proof motor enclosure
d.
Explosion proof motor enclosure
 

 45. 

What causes the relay contacts of a mechanical magnetic relay to open and close?
a.
The centrifugal force caused by the motor’s rotation.
b.
The magnetic field produced by the electromagnetic coil.
c.
The gravitational force acting n the weighted relay.
d.
The solenoid action of the motor’s drive shaft.
 

 46. 

If the contacts of a mechanical magnetic relay have a normally closed designation, what happens when the relay’s coil is energized?
a.
The contacts open and remain opened as long as the coil is energized.
b.
The contacts close and remain closed as long as the coil is energized.
c.
The contacts open and remain opened for one or two seconds.
d.
The contacts close and remain closed for one of two seconds.
 

 47. 

Which of the following motor types is appropriate for a single phase, hard starting load such an air compressor?
a.
Capacitor start, induction run motor
c.
Split phase motor
b.
Shaded pole motor
d.
3-phase, induction run motor
 

 48. 

An electric motor that is classified as a capacitor star, capacitor run motor will have:
a.
A low starting torque
b.
A horsepower rating appropriate only for two phase operation
c.
Capacitors to reduce the operating amperage for low voltage operation
d.
Capacitor to assist with the starting and running of the motor.
 

 49. 

A mechanical magnetic relay is used to control a 120-volt motor. A low voltage control, operating at 12 volts, controls the relay’s magnetic coil. Which of the following statements is correct?
a.
The relay contacts carry low voltage and low voltage passes through the coil.
b.
The relay contacts carry the motor amperage passes through the coil.
c.
The relay contacts carry the motor amperage and low voltage passes through the coil.
d.
The relay contacts carry only the low voltage and the motor amperage passes through the coil.
 

 50. 

If an electrical relay is used to correctly control a three-phase motor which of the following pole designations is correct?
a.
Single Pole
b.
Double Pole
c.
Triple Pole
d.
Quadruple Pole
 

 51. 

Automatic electrical controls are used to operate electrical equipment by sensing environmental variables, changes in conditions, and changes in locations. Which of the following are all automatic electrical controls?
a.
Thermostat, humidistat, and smoke detector
b.
Toggle switch, radon sensor, and traffic light
c.
Fuel gauge, ammeter, and watt-hour meter
d.
Photo electric cell, pull chain, and thermometer
 

 52. 

If three incandescent lights (light bulbs), 100 Watts, 200 Watts, and 300 Watts, are connected in parallel to 110 colts, which of the following is true?
a.
Each light operates at the same brightness
b.
The 100 watt light is brightest
c.
The 200 watt light is brightest
d.
The 300 watt light is brightest
 

 53. 

If three incandescent lights (light bulbs), 100 Watts, 200 Watts, and 300 Watts, are connected in series to 110 volts, which of the following is true?
a.
Each light operates at the same brightness
b.
The 100 watt light is brightest
c.
The 200 watt light is brightest
d.
The 300 light is brightest
 

 54. 

If three incandescent lights (light bulbs), all 75 Watts, are connected in parallel to 110 volts, which of the following is true?
a.
Each light operates at a different voltage
b.
Each light operates at a different amperage
c.
Each light operates at a different wattage
d.
Each light has the same resistance (ohms)
 

 55. 

If three incandescent lights (light bulbs), 50Watts. 100 Watts, and 200 Watts, are connected in parallel to 110 volts, which of the following is true?
a.
Each light operates at the same voltage
b.
Each light operates at the same amperage
c.
Each light operates at the same wattage.
d.
Each light has the same resistance (ohms)
 

 56. 

If three incandescent lights (light bulbs), 60 Watt, 75 Watt, and 100 Watt are connected in series to 100 volts, which of the following is true?
a.
Each light operates at the same voltage.
b.
Each light operates at the same amperage.
c.
Each light operates at the same wattage.
d.
Each light has the same resistance.
 

 57. 

What current (amperage) is required for a 3.6 kilowatt electric water heater when operating at 240 volts?    Formulas:  Wattage = Voltage x Amperage                      1 Kilowatt = 1000 Watts
a.
0.02 amps
c.
864.00 amps
b.
15.00 amps
d.
864000.00 amps
 

 58. 

What is the operating resistance (ohms) of a 120-volt electrical heat lamp that requires 3 amps to operate?    Voltage = Amperage x Resistance
a.
0.03 ohms
b.
40.00 ohms
c.
140.00 ohms
d.
360.00 ohms
 

 59. 

A two horsepower, single phase, dual voltage motor is operating at 115 volts and 24 amps when fully loaded. If the motor connections are rewired to operate at 230 volts and it is connected to a 230 volt power source, what will happen to the full-load amperage (FLA) of the motor?
a.
Full load amperage will decrease from 24 to 12 amps.
b.
Full load amperage will increase from 24 to 48 amps.
c.
Full load amperage will decrease from 230 amps to 115 amps.
d.
Full load amperage will increase from 115 to 230 amps.
 

 60. 

If the wattmeter measures 5800 watts of power being used by a five horsepower electric motor, operating at 230 volt, and 28 amps, what is the power factor for the motor?
a.
0.123 or 12 % power factor
c.
0.901 or 90 % power factor
b.
0.252 or 25 % power factor
d.
2.072 or 207 % power factor
 

 61. 

Block and brick walls are sometimes placed on footers consisting of continuous slabs of concrete to provide a solid, level foundation. What is the minimum depth for a concrete footer poured for an eight-inch block wall?
a.
2 inches deep
b.
8 inches deep
c.
36 inches deep
d.
48 inches deep
 

 62. 

Which of the following dimensions describes a standard sheet of plywood?
a.
1/4 inch x 2 feet x 4 feet
c.
3/4 inch x 4 feet x 8 feet
b.
1/2 inch x 4 feet x 6 feet
d.
1 inch x 6 feet x 10 feet
 

 63. 

Nail fasteners should be located at sufficient distance from the end and edge of lumber to avoid splitting the wood. A nail placed in the end of a board, that splits the wood will have a load carrying strength that is:
a.
Zero to near zero, almost no load carrying strength
b.
One-half the strength of a nail that does not split the wood
c.
Three-quarters the strength of a nail that does not split the wood
d.
Splitting the wood does not reduce the load -carrying strength
 

 64. 

What is the name of the bonding product used in concrete that is manufactured by heating limestone and clay, and then grinding and mixing the product into a fine powder?
a.
Portland concrete
c.
Portland mortar
b.
Portland cement
d.
Portland bond
 

 65. 

Modern building codes are legal documents that set forth the minimum structural requirements for the protection of public health, safety, and general welfare. The primary authority for established building codes in the United States is:
a.
American Builder’s Institute
c.
Uniform Building Code
b.
American Building Code
d.
Uniform Builder’s Institute
 

 66. 

The standard unit of lumber measurement is equivalent to a board measuring 12 inches by 12 inches by one inch, and is described as a:
a.
Square-foot
b.
Cubic-foot
c.
Lumber-foot
d.
Board-foot
 

 67. 

The load on a roof that is constant in magnitude and location throughout the life of the building due to the combined weight of all permanent structural and nonstructural components is the structure’s ________.
a.
Ground load
b.
Dead load
c.
Live load
d.
Open load
 

 68. 

Which of the following properly sized wood fasteners will provide the greatest holding strength when used to join softwood lumber?
a.
common nail
b.
box nails
c.
machine screw
d.
lag screw
 

 69. 

When metal is cut, what is the name of the opening or space that is produced by the cutting equipment?
a.
crater
b.
joint
c.
weld
d.
kerf
 

 70. 

During the plasma arc process,the gas is heated to a partially ionized condition that enables it to:
a.
Conduct electrical current
c.
Change to ionized atoms
b.
Produce an inert gas
d.
Resist high temperature melting
 

 71. 

For the plasma arc process to cut a material, it must have which property?
a.
Conductivity
b.
Ductility
c.
Malleability
d.
Rigidity
 

 72. 

What decade was the plasma arc cutting process first introduced to the welding industry?
a.
1950’s
b.
1970’s
c.
1990’s
d.
2000’s
 

 73. 

During the plasma arc cutting process, the metal that resolidifies and adheres to the bottom edge of a cut is called:
a.
Dross
b.
Slate
c.
Daze
d.
Shell
 

 74. 

Which of the following lens shades is most effective at reducing the brilliancy of light and screening out the harmful infrared and ultra-violet rays produced during welding?
a.
# 2 shade lens
b.
# 5 shade lens
c.
# 10 shade lens
d.
# 12 shade lens
 

 75. 

The types of stress commonly evaluated in the design of structures include:
a.
Tension and compression
c.
Failure and destruction
b.
Rust and corrosion
d.
Hydration and oxidation
 

 76. 

What is the most common steel used in agricultural construction for buildings, fences, and gates?
a.
Cast iron
b.
Mild steel
c.
Tool steel
d.
Wrought iron
 

 77. 

What is the scientific symbol for the element known as iron?
a.
Ir
b.
Ce
c.
Fe
d.
Ni
 

 78. 

How many cubic yards of concrete are needed to completely fill a foundation that measures 12 feet by 24 feet and is four inches thick?
Note: 27 Cubic feet = 1 cubic yard                1 foot = 12 inches
a.
3.6 cubic yards of concrete
c.
42.7 cubic yards of concrete
b.
10.7 cubic yards of concrete
d.
1,008.0 cubic yards of concrete
 

 79. 

What is the following quantities of lumber has the greatest number of board-feet?
a.
Twelve boards measuring 2 inches by 4 inches by 10 feet
b.
Eight boards measuring 1 inch by 6 inches by 10 feet
c.
Six boards measuring 2 inches by 2 inches by 10 feet
d.
Ten boards measuring 1 inch by 12 inches by 10 feet
 

 80. 

How many sheets of standard sized, three-quarter inch plywood are needed to completely cover a floor measuring 36 feet by 24 feet?
a.
24 sheets of plywood
c.
36 sheets of plywood
b.
27 sheets of plywood
d.
40 sheets of plywood
 

 81. 

An advantage of storing grain is:
a.
Increased quality of grain by reducing exposure to weather.
b.
Reducing milling time and expense by increased kernel cracks.
c.
Decreasing shelf life by removing excess moisture.
d.
Increased labor due to the number of workers operating the drying equipment.
 

 82. 

An advantage of storing grain is:
a.
Kernel “popping” only occurs at low temperatures.
b.
It reduces dependency on weather conditions for harvest success.
c.
It reduces the operating costs for harvesting.
d.
Drying operations are more economical than letting crops dry in the field.
 

 83. 

Grain with damaged kernel or significant amounts of foreign material should be stored at:
a.
1 to 2 percent points lower moisture content than sound, clean grain.
b.
5 to 10 percentage points lower moisture content than sound, clean grain.
c.
The same moisture content as sound, clean grain.
d.
40 degrees Fahrenheit and 17 % moisture to meet the 280-day safe storage recommendation.
 

 84. 

As a general rule of thumb, increasing the air temperature by _______ doubles the moisture-holding capacity of air and cuts the relative humidity in half.
a.
20 degrees Fahrenheit
c.
60 degrees Fahrenheit
b.
40 degrees Fahrenheit
d.
80 degrees Fahrenheit
 

 85. 

Grain loaded into extremely large containers (semi-trucks, railcars, barges) exhibit the following characteristics:
a.
Grain tends to be more homogeneous in distribution regardless of handling vibrations.
b.
Grain tends to be more homogeneous in distribution due to random harvesting activities.
c.
Course particles tend to concentrate in a region near the center of the container.
d.
Fine particles tend to concentrate in a region near the center of the container.
 

 86. 

When grain is cooled to a storage temperature that ranges between 50 to 70 degrees Fahrenheit , it results in a condition:
a.
That is optimum for insect reproduction and grain spoilage.
b.
Where insect reproduction is reduced.
c.
Where all insect activity becomes dormant.
d.
Where all insect feeding is eliminated and no further grain damage occurs.
 

 87. 

Under certain conditions grain acts much like quicksand and can be hazardous to individuals standing in grain. A person submerged up to his or her knees can easily become trapped in:
a.
Grain with low moisture content
b.
Grain with high moisture content
c.
Grain stored to a debt of two feet or less
d.
Flowing grain
 

 88. 

A common cause of death when someone is trapped in flowing grain is:
a.
Suffocating
b.
Crushing
c.
Falling
d.
Electrocution
 

 89. 

In order to prevent serious injury when someone is repairing grain augers:
a.
Lockout the power supply so the auger cannot operate.
b.
Wear gloves and eye protection when cleaning an auger that is operating.
c.
Have two observers watch so if someone becomes entangled they can offer assistance.
d.
Remove the old crusted grain while the auger is turning at a reduced speed.
 

 90. 

Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a.
Grain sampling to determine moisture content is not important for grain storage.
b.
Accurate grain sampling is more important to the farmer than to the grain buyer.
c.
Sampling of grain is defined as a process of removing an appropriate smaller volume from a larger quantity for testing.
d.
The distribution of broken grain constituents and foreign materials such as glass is generally uniform throughout a grain load,
 

 91. 

Which of the following is NOT an integrated pest management technique commonly used with stored grain?
a.
All grain is fumigated before storage.
b.
Avoid mixing clean with grain of questionable origin.
c.
Clean the bins and trucks thoroughly to prevent insect infestation.
d.
Fumigate grain bins only when insect infestations reach unacceptable levels.
 

 92. 

Which of the following is TRUE with regard to augers and grain damage?
a.
Operating augers at 25% capacity can reduce grain breakage.
b.
Operating augers at 50% capacity can reduce grain breakage.
c.
Operating augers at 75% capacity can reduce grain breakage.
d.
Operating augers at 100% capacity can reduce grain breakage.
 

 93. 

Moisture content is a key factor influencing grain damage during harvest. Generally, less damage occurs during harvest if the grain has a moisture content of:
a.
5%
b.
11%
c.
10%
d.
27%
 

 94. 

The coring of grain storage bin refers to:
a.
Adding new grain only to the outside of the bin.
b.
Increasing the airflow through the center of the bin.
c.
Removing a portion of grain from a bin between the time when grain is first added to the bin and when the bin is filled. It can result in the mixing of different quality grains.
d.
Aeration through the outer layers of grain to create a cold vertical column through the center of the grain bin. It can result in a center section of the grain freezing.
 

 95. 

The maximum recommended storage days for grain stored in a bin is based on the:
a.
Wettest grain in the bin
b.
Driest grain in the bin
c.
Average moisture content of grain in the bin
d.
Sea level
 

 96. 

Which of the following is the appropriate equipment to use when accessing the top of a grain bin or entering a grain bin from the top?
a.
Ladder
b.
Rope
c.
Chain
d.
Cable
 

 97. 

A rectangular grain bin is 12 feet wide and 16 feet long. The grain bin is filled to a level depth of 8 feet and the corn averages 45 pounds per cubic foot. How many pounds of corn are in the bin?
a.
1,536 pounds
b.
8,640 pounds
c.
69,120 pounds
d.
138,249 pounds
 

 98. 

If wheat has an average weight of 60 pounds per bushel and there are 0.453 kilograms in one pound, how many kilograms are there in 100 bushels of wheat?
a.
2,718 kilograms
c.
43,488 kilograms
b.
6,000 kilograms
d.
260,928 kilograms
 

 99. 

In determining field loss in corn, the average count is 5 kernels of corn per square foot of area sampled. If there is approximately 87,120 kernels of corn in one bushel, how many bushels of corn is lost per acre?  Note: 1 acre = 43,560 square feet
a.
0.5 bushels per acre
c.
10.0 bushels per acre
b.
2.5 bushels per acre
d.
25.0 bushels per acre
 

 100. 

A round storage bin is 15 feet in diameter and filled to a depth of 15 feet. If corn weighs 45 pounds per cubic foot and there are 56 pounds per bushel, how many pounds of corn are in the bin?
Note: Volume of Cylinder = height  x  ¹  x  (diameter)2  /  4
a.
2,651 pounds
b.
7,952 pounds
c.
37,969 pounds
d.
119,282 pounds
 



 
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