Name: 
 

2002 Ohio State Agricultural Engineering Technology Test



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Factors to consider when locating buildings on a farmstead are
a.
fire safety.
b.
freedom from odors.
c.
space for moving machinery.
d.
safety for family in the outside living area.
e.
all of these are correct.
 

 2. 

When selecting and planning for a site be sure and check regulations with governmental agencies such as the
a.
local environmental agency.
d.
soil conservation service.
b.
village or city codes.
e.
all of these are correct.
c.
county or borough.
 

 3. 

Items classified as utilities and services are
a.
electricity.
d.
road location- size and maintenance.
b.
telephone.
e.
all of these are correct.
c.
water.
 

 4. 

Posts and timbers are wood products of this basic dimension or greater.
a.
1”T-W
c.
5”T-W
b.
2/4”7-W
d.
none of these are correct.
 

 5. 

A project requires 7 pieces - 2”x 8”x 144” - the board feet is
a.
8
b.
112
c.
120
d.
1205
 

 6. 

A                  is used to carry loads over doors and windows.
a.
cripple stud
b.
header
c.
soffit
d.
facia
e.
sill plate
 

 7. 

A                      is a trim board nailed to the vertical cut at the end of a rafter.
a.
sole plate
b.
top plate
c.
header
d.
facia
e.
soffit
 

 8. 

The horizontal members that siding is attached to in pole construction are called
a.
purlins.
c.
girts.
e.
all of these are correct.
b.
headers.
d.
poles.
 

 9. 

round poles are classifies according to
a.
top circumference.
c.
bottom circumference.
e.
all of these are correct.
b.
average circumference.
d.
length.
 

 10. 

Concrete hardens due to a chemical reaction called
a.
dehydration.
c.
drying.
e.
hydrolysis.
b.
hydration.
d.
electrolysis.
 

 11. 

When ordering ready-mix concrete for the construction of a chemical storage or rinse pad structure, it is recommended that Type II or Type V concrete can be used because they are more resistant to the damaging effects of
a.
sulfates used in many fertilizers &pesticides.
b.
the ozone layer.
c.
evaporation.
d.
expansion and contracting due to freezing.
 

 12. 

A bag of cement
a.
weighs 84 pounds.
b.
weighs 94 pounds.
c.
weighs 100 pounds.
d.
contains one cubic foot of cement.
e.
weighs 94 pounds AND contains one cubic foot of cement are correct.
 

 13. 

Before concrete is placed, the following procedure(s) should be completed.
a.
compact the subgrade.
c.
dampen the subgrade.
b.
level subgrade to desired slope.
d.
all of these are correct.
 

 14. 

This tool produces a very smooth finish on fresh concrete.
a.
Broom
c.
Bull float
e.
Steel trowel
b.
Wood float
d.
Magnesium float
 

 15. 

When constructing a chemical storage structure, the air inlet vents should be located                  to help remove heavier than air toxic and flammable vapors.
a.
within 12 inches from the floor
b.
greater than 12 inches from the floor
c.
at eye level
d.
as high as possible on the walls
 

 16. 

                      refers to structures built around pesticide and fertilizer storage facilities to contain products that have escaped out to leaks, spills, fire, impacts, vandalism or ruptured tanks.
a.
Secondary containment
c.
Primary containment
b.
Absorbent pillow or “pigs”
d.
none of the above
 

 17. 

Pesticides should be stored in
a.
the machinery storage building.
b.
the farm shop.
c.
a separate building away from other structures.
d.
spraying equipment.
 

 18. 

You are going to pour concrete in below freezing weather. You would use:
a.
Type I Portland cement with 5% alcohol and water.
b.
Type II Modifies Portland cement.
c.
Type III High Early Strength cement with 2% calcium chloride.
d.
Type IV Sulfate Resistant Portland cement.
 

 19. 

The vertical distance from the top of the plate to the upper end of the measuring line on the rafter is known as the:
a.
rise
b.
pitch
c.
span
d.
run
 

 20. 

Which exposure classification for unsanded plywood sheathing is recommended when long construction delays are anticipated? In other words, it is expected that the unfinished structure will be exposed to the elements for a relatively long period of time.
a.
Exterior-type plywood
c.
Exposure 2 plywood
b.
Exposure 1 plywood
d.
Interior-type plywood
 

 21. 

A mechanical injury that results when a part of the body is caught between two hard surfaces and an attempt is made to bend  rigid bone is called
a.
tearing
b.
cutting
c.
breaking
d.
shearing
 

 22. 

Effective equipment guards must
a.
require delicate adjustment for operation.
b.
require frequent, full-scale maintenance.
c.
be designed for the hazard or type of operation where they will be used.
d.
all of these are correct.
 

 23. 

The last line of defense in the safety protection hierarchy is:
a.
engineering controls
c.
administrative controls
b.
personal protective equipment (PPE)
d.
educational controls
 

 24. 

An example  of an engineering control used to protect against hearing loss is:
a.
ear muffs
b.
to limit times a worker can perform a task in a noisy area
c.
the additional of mufflers to equipment
d.
all f these are correct
 

 25. 

The number one cause of fatalities occurring on the farm is:
a.
being crushed/trampled by livestock
b.
drowning in a liquid manure pit
c.
becoming engulfed in a gain storage bin
d.
accidents involving tractors
 

 26. 

B fastening a load or hitching an implement above the drawbar on the tractor, a farmer might cause which type of accident to occur:
a.
a collision
c.
a rear overturn (rollover)
b.
a run-over
d.
a PTO entanglement
 

 27. 

The term “MSDS” means
a.
Mandatory Safety Department Standards
b.
Material Safety Data Sheets
c.
Ministry of Standards
d.
none of these are correct
 

 28. 

An acute health hazard is one in which
a.
results in symptoms of overexposure becoming quickly apparent
b.
never results in any adverse condition
c.
causes symptoms too develop slowly over a long period of time
d.
causes the victim to suddenly die three days after exposure
 

 29. 

Leaks caused by cracks or holes may be a result of everything listed below but
a.
structural failure
b.
scratching by sharp objects
c.
vibration of pipe and hose
d.
stripping from repeated assembly and disassembly
 

 30. 

The                          monitors the current flow in a hot wire and ground in an electrical circuit. When a fault in the current flow develops, it interrupts the power.
a.
FCI
b.
AC/DC
c.
OHMY
d.
GFCI
 

 31. 

A car traveling  at 50mph sees a tractor 400 ft ahead on a two-lane highway. The tractor is traveling at 20 mph. How much time does the driver of the car have to respond and slow down to avoid a collision?
a.
about 60 seconds
c.
about 45 seconds
b.
about 30 seconds
d.
about 10 seconds
 

 32. 

The largest size (maximum horsepower) of tractor which a child under the age of sixteen may legally operate is
a.
2 hp
b.
20 hp
c.
200 hp
d.
2000 hp
 

 33. 

The term  ROPS stands for
a.
Roll Over Protection Structure
b.
Random Operating Protection Standard
c.
Reverse Operating Protection Structure
d.
None of these are correct.
 

 34. 

The preferred method used to rescue a person trapped in a grain gin is to
a.
walk in a circle around the outside of the grain bin
b.
put a 55 gallon barrel  around the trapped person and dig them out
c.
tie a rope around the trapped person’s waist and pull them out
d.
cut vents in the bin with a loader or tractor
 

 35. 

                  exposure is a low-level exposure to a compound or condition over a long period of time.
a.
Acute
b.
Chronic
c.
Ocular
d.
Toxicity
 

 36. 

Dry fertilizer is hygroscopic, this means that it will                               .
a.
readily burn.
c.
have very small particles.
b.
explode easily.
d.
attract moisture.
 

 37. 

The United States                          is the federal agency that registers and regulates all pesticides.
a.
Department of Agriculture (USDA)
b.
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
c.
Worker Protection Standard (WPS)
d.
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
 

 38. 

A(n)                     is a chemical that must be applied by a certifies chemical applicator due to high toxicity or concerns about the environment.
a.
agrochemical
c.
pesticide
b.
fumigant
d.
restricted use pesticide
 

 39. 

Clothing and devices that are worn to protect the human body from contact with pesticides and their residues are:
a.
respirators
c.
safety shields
b.
personal protective equipment
d.
Material Safety Data Sheets
 

 40. 

Exposure to anhydrous ammonia may cause:
a.
eye irritation.
c.
damage to the respiratory tract.
b.
freezing of the skin.
d.
all of these are correct.
 

 41. 

A stored energy hazard is
a.
hydraulic cylinder
c.
springs
b.
circuit breaker
d.
all of these are correct
 

 42. 

Which of these motor enclosures should be used if a motor is installed in an environment where it will be splashed or sprayed by water?
a.
Open
c.
Splash proof
b.
Dust proof
d.
Explosion proof
 

 43. 

Hydraulic pumps produce:
a.
Fluid Pressure.
c.
Compressed fluid.
b.
Fluid Flow.
d.
All of these are correct.
 

 44. 

The fluid output a hydraulic pump can be measured in:
a.
pounds per square inch.
c.
linear feet per minute.
b.
square feed of surface area.
d.
gallons per minute.
 

 45. 

Term used in hydraulics that describes a fluid under pressure.
a.
Reserve pressure
c.
Cavitation
b.
Hydrolysis
d.
Hydrostatic
 

 46. 

Which is not a type of hydraulic pump?
a.
Diaphragm
b.
Vane
c.
Gear
d.
Piston
 

 47. 

In a hydraulic system, one method that converts fluid power into mechanical power is through the use of:
a.
Hydraulic Cylinders
c.
Hydraulic chains
b.
Hydraulic filters
d.
Hydraulic reservoirs
 

 48. 

Removing are from the hydraulic cylinder is called:
a.
Hydrolysis
c.
Cylinder creeping
b.
Bleeding
d.
Misalignment
 

 49. 

Which of the following is a commonly used electric motor mount?
a.
“A” Frame
b.
Cushioned
c.
Vibrating
d.
Orbital
 

 50. 

A time-delayed circuit protection is installed in a 200 foot electrical circuit. If a single 20 horsepower motor load is connected at the end of the circuit, the circuit protection is sized to protect the                           from electrical overloads.
a.
motor
b.
circuit conductors
c.
motor and circuit conductors
d.
neither the motor or the circuit conductors
 

 51. 

Which of the following is a common designation for an electric motor type?
a.
1800 rpm
c.
Overload capacity
b.
intermittent
d.
Capacitor-start
 

 52. 

What is meant by torque?
a.
A wrench
b.
Turning action
c.
To place
d.
Power
 

 53. 

The most important difference in types of electric motor types is their:
a.
size
c.
ability to start loads
b.
cost
d.
total weight
 

 54. 

When connecting booster batteries to the battery if an automobile or tractor, connect the:
a.
Positive terminal to the negative terminal.
b.
Negative terminal to the positive terminal.
c.
Positive terminal o ground.
d.
Positive terminal to the positive terminal.
 

 55. 

In the AC charging system of an automobile or tractor, current passes through       in the alternator to produce a magnetic field in the rotor.
a.
power regulators
b.
generators
c.
batteries
d.
brushes
 

 56. 

During the starting of an automobile or tractor, current for the starting system is provided by the:
a.
Transformer
b.
Alternator
c.
Generator
d.
Battery
 

 57. 

If the gravity of a battery measures 1/200 in all cells. what should be done to determine if the battery should be replaced?
a.
Battery is in good condition, no further maintenance or testing is necessary
b.
Nothing can be done, replace the battery.
c.
First charge battery then test further.
d.
Replace the engine alternator and battery cables.
 

 58. 

Electrical                      is the movement of electrons through or along a conductor.
a.
resistance
b.
wattage
c.
voltage
d.
current
 

 59. 

In an automobile or tractor battery,chemical energy is converted into electrical energy by the chemical reaction between the active materials of dissimilar plates submersed in                        solution.
a.
a water
c.
a base
b.
an electric
d.
an electrolyte
 

 60. 

A 12 volt automobile battery will have                      internal cells connected in series.
a.
3
b.
6
c.
12
d.
24
 

 61. 

The inherent poisonous potency of a compound under experimental conditions is referred to as the compound’s:
a.
use hazard
c.
poisoning effect
b.
toxicity
d.
noxious effect
 

 62. 

The risk or danger of poisoning when a chemical is used or applied is sometimes referred to as the chemical’s:
a.
use hazard
c.
poisoning effect
b.
toxicity
d.
noxious effect
 

 63. 

A chemical substance that exerts an injurious effect in a majority of cases when it comes into contact with living organisms during normal use is an adequate scientific definition of:
a.
a hazard
b.
toxicity
c.
a poison
d.
noxious
 

 64. 

A pesticide label that contains the signal words DANGER-POISON in bold print and the skull and crossbones symbol represents a category of toxicity and is classified as:
a.
Category I
b.
Category II
c.
Category III
d.
Category IV
 

 65. 

A pesticide label that contains the signal word WARNING in bold print is required for all moderately toxic compounds and is classified as:
a.
Category I
b.
Category II
c.
Category III
d.
Category IV
 

 66. 

The pesticide label that contains the signal word CAUTION in bold print is required for slightly toxic compounds and is classified as:
a.
Category I
b.
Category II
c.
Category III
d.
Category IV
 

 67. 

A pesticide label that contains the signal word CAUTION “Keep Out of Reach of Children” is required of all compounds having unqualified claims for safety is classified as:
a.
Category I
b.
Category II
c.
Category III
d.
Category IV
 

 68. 

A material included in the herbicide formulation or added to the spray tank to modify application characteristics is called:
a.
an emulsifier
b.
a surfactant
c.
an adjuvant
d.
an additive
 

 69. 

A material in a herbicide formulation that improves dispersing, spreading, wetting, or other properties of a liquid is referred to as:
a.
an emulsifier
b.
a  surfactant
c.
an adjuvant
d.
an additive
 

 70. 

Materials that thicken the herbicide spray solution and reduce the number of very small satellite droplets is referred to as:
a.
spreader-sticker agents
c.
antifoam agents
b.
drift control agents
d.
compatibility agents
 

 71. 

The amount of drift an application of herbicide may be attributed to:
a.
droplet size, wind velocity, and speed of travel
b.
droplet size, wide velocity, and rate of application
c.
droplet size, wind velocity, and spray release height
d.
droplet size, wind velocity, and the amount of additives in the mixture
 

 72. 

Herbicides should always be sprayed ____ to minimize the spray drift hazard.
a.
when winds are less than 3 mph and no greater than 5 mph
b.
just before sunrise and just after sunset
c.
on calm overcast days
d.
in the middle of the say when the sun is the hottest
 

 73. 

The environmental assessment of a site for a containment facility should include:
a.
counting all the birds in the area
b.
sampling soil at and around the proposed site.
c.
determining the type of grass growing on the site.
d.
determining if there is a local fire department.
 

 74. 

Worker safety equipment that should be available in a pesticide handling area should include:
a.
an emergency shower
b.
an eyewash
c.
the current Material Safety  Data Sheets
d.
all of these are correct
 

 75. 

The NFPA classifies stored liquid pesticide as flammable if the liquid:
a.
has a flash point at or above 100F
c.
has a flash point below 100F
b.
smells like gasoline
d.
burns when ignited
 

 76. 

Secondary containment refers to:
a.
structures built around storage facilities to contain products that have leaked of spilled
b.
shovels and sand used to cover over leaks and spills
c.
water tanks used to wash away leaks and spills
d.
none of these are correct
 

 77. 

Rinsate refers to:
a.
water tanks used to wash away leaks and spills
b.
containers that are used once and then disposed
c.
a thin layer of granular material placed on top of a prepared subgrade
d.
water that has been used to clean pesticide
 

 78. 

Liquid contact pesticides refer to:
a.
pesticides that knock insects off of plant
b.
pesticides that kills insects by coming in contact with the insect
c.
pesticides that must be applied with a garden hose
d.
none of these are correct
 

 79. 

Liquid chemical drift can be described as:
a.
when the application equipment does not stay in the rows of a field
b.
when chemicals do not stay in the intended area
c.
when a spray nozzle is clogged
d.
none of these are correct
 

 80. 

To reduce the risk of drift when applying liquid pesticides, one should select:
a.
a contact type of pesticide
c.
a systemic type of pesticide
b.
a slow moving applicator
d.
a nozzle that produces course droplets
 

 81. 

The best spray tip to select for superior wear life is:
a.
ceramic
b.
brass
c.
polymer
d.
stainless steel
 

 82. 

Nozzle tips having a flow rate of ____percent more or less tan the average of all nozzles on that sprayer should be cleaned of replaced.
a.
20
b.
5
c.
10
d.
15
 

 83. 

Chemical application rates can be increased by:
a.
increasing pressure at the nozzle tip.
c.
reducing the speed of the tractor
b.
using a larger nozzle tip
d.
all of these are correct
 

 84. 

Nozzle data supplied states that the Volume Median Diameter of a given nozzle is 810 microns at 40 psig and .5gpm. What percent of the droplets from this nozzle will be less than 810 microns?
a.
25
b.
50
c.
65
d.
70
 

 85. 

In general, the tips that produce the smallest droplets size are ____tips.
a.
hollow cone
b.
flat spray
c.
even spray
d.
flooding
 

 86. 

A___tip was designed for band application of chemicals and is not recommended for broadcast applications.
a.
hollow cone
b.
flat spray
c.
even spray
d.
flooding
 

 87. 

Which of the following is not the recommended procedure to clean a clogged orifice tip?
a.
Metal probe
c.
Fine Bristle brush
b.
Toothpick
d.
Cleaning solution and water
 

 88. 

Sprayers should be calibrated:
a.
only when purchased new
b.
only once a year after winter storage
c.
only when changing from one chemical to another
d.
periodically during the season and each time a new chemical is used.
 

 89. 

A 1/4 inch Raindrop nozzle has a100% spray pattern overlap recommendation. If the nozzle spacing is 30 inches, the spray pattern on the ground from one nozzle should be ____inches.
a.
30
b.
45
c.
60
d.
100
 

 90. 

When calibrating a sprayer, if the gallon per acre value determined is not required, the easiest method of correction is to:
a.
change the sprayer pressure
c.
changing the nozzle tips
b.
speed up or slow down the tractor
d.
none of these are correct
 

 91. 

The ideal location to mount the pressure gauge for the greatest accuracy in application of the chemical is:
a.
before the pressure regulator
b.
immediately after the pump
c.
close to the operator
d.
on the boom as close to the nozzle as  possible
 

 92. 

Strainers mounted on the suction side of the system are designed (sized) to protect the:
a.
nozzles
b.
pump
c.
pressure gauge
d.
relief value
 

 93. 

Color coding of nozzle tips by companies makes it easy to match:
a.
spray patterns
b.
spray angles
c.
nozzle heights
d.
flow rates
 

 94. 

A discharge line is frequently closed on a 250 psi spray system. If it is desired to reduce pump working pressure to pump inlet pressure, the best valve to install would be a/an?
a.
unloader valve
c.
manual shut off valve
b.
relief valve
d.
electric shut off valve
 

 95. 

A pressure gauge should have a total range___ the reading expected.
a.
equal to
c.
twice
b.
1-1/2 times greater
d.
three times
 

 96. 

Although all response below affect it, nozzle height is determined primarily by:
a.
measuring the width of the spray pattern as its hits the ground.
b.
nozzle tilt.
c.
nozzle spacing.
d.
nozzle flow rate.
 

 97. 

A special patented nozzle design to reduce drift is the:
a.
Rainbird
b.
Raindrop
c.
Rainbow
d.
Rainmaker
 

 98. 

The minimum suction hose size to eliminate hose collapsing and accelerated pump wear should be____then inlet port on the pump.
a.
smaller than
c.
larger than
b.
equal to
d.
2 times larger than
 

 99. 

Strainers should always be checked before using a sprayer. If all strainers (tank, pump, and nozzle) were the same shape and size, the pump strainer could be identified as the one with____mesh.
a.
10-20
b.
40-50
c.
50-200
d.
200+
 

 100. 

When calibrating  a sprayer, operating pressures should be adjusted with flow cut off valves that are:
a.
closed
b.
open
c.
half open
d.
in any position since it does not affect pressure
 



 
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