Multiple Choice
Identify the
choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1.
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When a tractor tire is correctly filled with liquid ballast, what percentage of
the total space should be ballast?
a. | 10 percent | b. | 25 percent | c. | 75 percent | d. | 100
percent |
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2.
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If the oil in a tractor’s hydraulic system is foaming, what is most likely
the problem?
a. | The hydraulic oil is dirty | b. | The hydraulic pump is not
pumping | c. | There is 50% water in the hydraulic oil | d. | There is
insufficient hydraulic oil in the reservoir |
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3.
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Which of the following factors directly influences the field capacity of
agricultural equipment?
a. | Power takeoff(PTO) speed and temperature | b. | Machine weight and
ground clearance | c. | Travel speed and operating efficiency | d. | Machine height and
length |
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4.
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Which of the following variables directly influences power output of a
tractor’s power takeoff(PTO)?
a. | PTO torque and rotational speed | b. | Tractor travel speed and
direction | c. | Tractor wheel diameter and travel speed | d. | PTO diameter and
tractor engine oil pressure |
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5.
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Which of the following are all common type of manure spreaders?
a. | Flail, bucket, and box | c. | Bucket, box, and V-tank | b. | Box, V-tank, and
flail | d. | V-tank, flail, and
bucket |
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6.
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What is the appropriate method to free the flails on a flail type manure
spreader when they become clogged or jammed in position so they will not rotate?
a. | Use a pry bar | b. | Use a large sledge hammer | c. | Repeatedly engage
the power supply | d. | Heat them with an oxy-acetylene torch |
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7.
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while parked on a flat surface, if the loaded bucket on a tractor is raised
overhead, what is the effect on the tractor’s overall center of gravity?
a. | Center of gravity moves lower | c. | Center of gravity moves to the
left | b. | Center of gravity moves higher | d. | Center of gravity moves to the
right |
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8.
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When operating a tractor on a road or highway, which of the following is correct
regarding brakes?
a. | Lock the left and right brake pedals together so that both the left and right brakes
assist while breaking | b. | Make sure the left and right brake pedals are
not locked together so the brakes can assist with steering | c. | Use the left brake
for low speed braking and the right brake for high speed braking | d. | Do not use the
brakes to control speed when traveling on roads or highways |
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9.
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What safety criteria should be followed when a person must reach into the cab of
a skid steer loader?
a. | The engine should be running and the operator’s seat empty | b. | The parking brake
should be set and the bucket should be raised | c. | The bucket should be lowered to the ground and
the engine turned off | d. | The transmission should be in neutral and the
bucket should be at mid-height |
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10.
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Which of the following is the correct procedure when the forward visibility of a
tractor operator is obstructed while transporting a large round bale with a front-end loader
attachment?
a. | Move the bucket to the highest position and drive quickly to the
destination | b. | Stand up and hold on to the steering wheel while leaning out of the cab to
see | c. | Position the bale close to the ground and back the tractor for improved
visibility | d. | Have another worker ride on top of the bale and give the driver verbal
instructions |
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11.
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Which of the following gasses is a common suffocation hazard that may exist in a
grain storage bin?
a. | Carbon dioxide(CO2) given off by spoiling grain | b. | Nitrogen
dioxide(NO2) given off by the drying process | c. | Hydrogen
sulfide(HSO4) given off by grain respiration | d. | Nitrogen
tetroxide(N2O4) given off through the aeration
process |
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12.
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When moving a tractor up a steep incline, which of the following techniques is
recommended?
a. | Back up the incline | b. | Steer straight up the incline while driving
upward | c. | Angle about 45 degree along the slope while driving up the
incline | d. | Have someone stand on the front of the tractor while driving up the
slope |
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13.
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Why do most tractor manufacturers suggest refueling at the end of the
workday?
a. | To prevent moisture accumulation in the fuel tank overnight | b. | To reduce the chance
of combustion common with daytime refueling | c. | Because in the morning, a cold tractor engine
starts more easily with a full tank | d. | Because fuel is less dense in the evening and
the tractor’s tank will hold more fuel |
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14.
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What should be done to increase the amount of wheel slippage when a heavily
ballasted tractor has little or no slippage?
a. | Drive at a slower speed | c. | Remove ballast from the
tractor | b. | Add ballast to the tractor | d. | Operate the tractor in a lower gear |
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15.
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If at ATV with an attached boom sprayer travels 200 feet in 26 seconds, what is
the travel speed in miles per hour (mph)?
a. | 1.22 mph | b. | 3.89 mph | c. | 5.24 mph | d. | 13.63
mph |
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16.
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The torque specifications for a bolt is 4 foot-pounds. If a torque wrench
calibrated in inch-pounds is used, how many inch-pounds are required to equal 4 foot-pounds?
a. | 3 inch-pounds | c. | 36 inch-pounds | b. | 12 inch-pounds | d. | 48 inch-pounds |
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17.
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A portable auger is powered by an electric motor that rotates at 1725
revolutions per minute. If the motor has a found-inch diameter pulley and the auger is to turn at
approximately 495 revolutions per minute, what diameter pulley is required for the auger?
Note:
(Diameter of Pulley 1) x (Speed of Pulley 1) = (Diameter of Pulley 2) x (Speed of Pulley
2)
a. | 2 inches | b. | 7 inches | c. | 10 inches | d. | 14
inches |
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18.
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A combine travels at five miles per hour and has a grain head that is 28 feet
wide. If grain is harvested at a rate of 48 bushels of grain per acre, what is the rate of harvest in
bushels per minute?
Note: 1 hour = 60 minutes 1 mile = 5,280
feet 1 acre = 43,560 ft2
a. | 6.8 bushels per minute | c. | 162.9 bushels per minute | b. | 13.6 bushels per
minute | d. | 814.5 bushels per
minute |
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19.
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If a tractor’s power takeoff (PTO) produces 105 horsepower at 540
revolutions per minute (rpm), what is the approximate torque produced?
Note: torque in
foot-pounds = PTO horsepower x 5252/ rpm
a. | 105 foot-pounds | c. | 1,020 foot-pounds | b. | 540 foot-pounds | d. | 27,100
foot-pounds |
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20.
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A loader has two hydraulic cylinders that are each 36 inches in length with
2-inch diameter cylinders. If the loader’s hydraulic system produces a pressure of 2,500 pounds
per square inch, what is the approximate force that each cylinder produces?
Note: force =
pressure x cross sectional area
Note: area of circle = (pi) x [(diameter)2 /
4]
a. | 3,900 lbs | b. | 7,900 lbs | c. | 15,700 lbs | d. | 90,000
lbs |
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21.
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In preparation for highway transport of a combine, what advantage is there to
emptying the grain tank?
a. | The operator will move the unloading auger to the unloading
position | b. | The combine will operate at a maximum highway speed of 20 mph | c. | The combine’s
center of gravity is moved high above the rear axle | d. | The combine’s center of gravity is
lowered |
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22.
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As an export commodity, how is corn normally classified?
a. | An oilseed crop | c. | A food grain | b. | A feed grain | d. | A fiber crop |
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23.
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Which of the following dairy products accounted for the largest number of pounds
of export from the US?
a. | Fluid milk and cream | c. | Cheese and curd | b. | Non-fat dry milk | d. | Ice cream |
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24.
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When a licensed milk hauler checks the temperature of the milk in the bulk tank
of a dairy, what temperature is required by regulations?
a. | Below 18ªF, ideally between 0ªF and 12ªF | b. | Below 32ªF,
ideally between 16ªF and 30ªF | c. | Below 40ªF, ideally between 34ªF and
36ªF | d. | Below 54ªF, ideally between 45ªF and
50ªF |
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25.
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While refueling a farm tractor, what is the best way to prevent a situation
where static electricity might ignite the fuel?
a. | Refuel the tractor in the shade away from tall buildings | b. | Operate only propane
tractors that are less likely to produce a static charge | c. | Ground the tractor
with an electrical conductor or by lowering mounted equipment to the ground | d. | Have the operator
refuel the tractor while standing on the ground and resting a hand on the fuel
tank |
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26.
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When an engine is operated in an enclosed shed, what exhaust gas presents a
hazard to people and animals?
a. | Hydrogen Peroxide | c. | Hydrogen Sulfide | b. | Carbon Monoxide | d. | Carbon Dioxide |
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27.
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Which of the following describes the level of production where businesses will
break-even?
a. | Neither a loss or a profit occurs | b. | Total assets equal total
liabilities | c. | Average fixed costs equal average total costs | d. | Gross sales revenue
equal the marginal input costs |
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28.
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Which of the following is an example of a variable cost for a milk hauler that
is hiring full time workers?
a. | Overtime pay for hired labor | b. | School tax on the firm’s
property | c. | Casualty insurance on transport trailers | d. | Depreciation on a
new semi-truck with tanker |
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29.
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What is the mandatory method of calculating tangible depreciable property for
income tax purposes?
a. | Straight Line (SL) | b. | Sum of the Years Digits
(SOYD) | c. | Double Declining Balance (DDB) | d. | Modified Accelerated Cost Recovery System
(MACRS) |
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30.
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When a tractor is equipped with a rollover protective structure (ROPS) and a
seat belt, what is the purpose of the ROPS?
a. | Lower the tractor’s center of gravity | b. | Prevent head
injuries caused by falling objects | c. | Limit most rollovers to 90 degrees and when the
seatbelt is worn, to protect the operator | d. | Limit most rollovers to 180 degrees and when
the seatbelt is not worn, to protect the operator |
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31.
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Which of the following are all fixed costs associated with operating a
farm?
a. | Soil conservation losses, lost crop repayments, death benefits, and federal incentive
payments | b. | The opportunity and entertainment costs not declared on Schedule F of the IRS 1040
Form | c. | Shelter, interest, taxes, depreciation, and insurance | d. | Livestock
depreciation and all operating costs |
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32.
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If a 6-inch diameter auger, operating at 425 revolutions per minute, loads
47,500 pounds of corn in 1 hour and 15 minutes, what is the capacity of the auger in bushels per
hour?
Note: 1 bushel of corn = 56 pounds 1 hour = 60 minutes
a. | 111.76 bu/hr | c. | 848.21 bu/hr | b. | 678.57 bu/hr | d. | 1,360.42 bu/hr |
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33.
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If it requires 25 seconds for a pesticide spray boom to travel 135 feet, what is
the travel speed of the boom in miles per hour?
Note: 1 mile = 5,280 feet 1 hour
= 3600 seconds
a. | 3.68 mph | c. | 7.12 mph | b. | 5.94 mph | d. | 9.20 mph |
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34.
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What is the effective field capacity of a combine (in acres per hour) with a
30-foot header, traveling at 4.25 miles per hour, and operating with a field efficiency of 78
percent?
Note: effective field capacity = width of implement in feet x speed in miles per
hour x efficiency divided by 8.25
a. | 10.82 ac/hr | c. | 108.20 ac/hr | b. | 12.05 ac/hr | d. | 1205.45 ac/hr |
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35.
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The average annual fixed costs of operating is a grinder-mixer is $16,000 and
the operating costs are 8.5 cents per 100 pounds of feed processed. If the custom rate for
grinding-mixing is 26 cents per 100 pounds, how much feed must be processed with the grinder-mixer
annually to break even on the investment?
Note: 1 cwt=100 pounds
Note: break even quantity in
cwt= average annual fixed cost
custom rate per 100 ponds-operating cost per 100 pounds
a. | 914.3 cwt | c. | 91428.6 cwt | b. | 9142.9 cwt | d. | 914285.7 cwt |
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36.
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If a storage elevator charges 3.5 cents per bushel per month to store corn, what
is the total cost to store 26,000 bushels of corn for four months?
a. | $ 910 | b. | $ 3,640 | c. | $ 36,400 | d. | $
364,000 |
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37.
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If the local sales tax is 5.75%, what is the total cost, including sales tax,
for an item marked $78.45?
a. | $ 78.45 | b. | $ 80.22 | c. | $ 82.96 | d. | $
123.55 |
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38.
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If a railcar has an inside width of 96 inches, an inside length of 47 feet, and
is filled with corn to a uniform depth of 84 inches, how many bushels of grain are in the
railcar?
Note: 1 foot=12 inches 1 cubic foot= 1728 cubic inches 1 bushel=1.25
cubic feet
a. | 210560 bu | b. | 2632.5 bu | c. | 2105.6 bu | d. | 210.6
bu |
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39.
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If it cost 12.5 cents per 100 pounds to haul milk, what is the total hauling
charge to transport 6375 gallons of milk?
Note: milk weighs 8.6 pounds per gallon
a. | $ 1305.36 | b. | $741.27 | c. | $ 548.25 | d. | $
68.53 |
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40.
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Electrical controls designed for use with electric motors must include what
ratings?
a. | Wattage, amperage, and horsepower | c. | Lumens, amperage, and
current | b. | Wattage, foot candles, and current | d. | Wattage, lumens, and voltage
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41.
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When an electrical wiring system provides power to a 230-volt motor, why is the
frame of the motor grounded?
a. | to complete the branch circuit | b. | to prevent the motors from turning in
reverse | c. | to physically connect the motor to equipment frames | d. | to ground the motor
and reduce the likelihood of electrical shock |
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42.
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The grounded conductor is an electrical wiring system serves what
purpose?
a. | It is the neutral conductor for the electrical system | b. | It is a noncurrent
carrying conductor for most appliances | c. | It is the unnecessary connection of an
electrical conductor to earth | d. | It is the only possible electrical connection
between the electrical system and the earth |
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43.
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Which of the following is the correct conductor to install in the walls of a
wood framed building?
a. | Tripex cable | b. | USE cable | c. | NM cable | d. | UF
cable |
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44.
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When overload protection is selected for installation inside a motor or motor
controller, it should be sized for what part of the circuit?
a. | The amperage of the conductors used in the specific motor circuit | b. | The amperage of the
service entrance conductors | c. | The safe operating amperage of the
motor | d. | The amperage of the circuit protection |
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45.
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When using a 12-2 WG nonmetallic sheathed cable in an 120-volt electrical
lighting circuit, which conductor should a single pole, single throw light switch control (make or
break the connection)?
a. | Black-hot-ungrounded | c. | White-grounded | b. | Green-grounded | d. | Bare-grounded |
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46.
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What is the designation of the switch that will control 240-volt, single phase
lighting loads that are to be turned on or off from a single location?
a. | single-pole, double-throw | c. | double-pole,
double-throw | b. | double-pole, single-throw | d. | triple-pole, single-throw |
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47.
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On a three-way switch, without a grounding terminal, which of the following
correctly identifies the three terminals on the switch?
a. | One common terminal, one neutral terminal, and one grounding
terminal | b. | One traveler terminal, one common terminal, and one neutral
terminal | c. | Two traveler terminals and one common terminal | d. | Two common terminals
and one traveler terminal |
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48.
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If a light is to be controlled by two locations, what switches are
needed?
a. | One single pole, single throw switch and one 3-way switch | b. | Two single pole,
single throw switches | c. | One 3-way and one 4-way
switch | d. | Two 3-way switches |
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49.
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If a light is to be controlled from three locations, what switches are needed?
a. | Two single pole, single throw switches and two 3-way switches | b. | One 3-way switch and
three 4--way switches | c. | Two 3-way switches and two 4-way
switches | d. | Three 3-way switches and two 3-way switches |
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50.
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If a light it to be controlled from four locations, what switches are
needed?
a. | Two single pole, single throw switches and two 3-way switches | b. | One 3-way switch and
three 4-way switches | c. | Two 3-way switches and two 4-way
switches | d. | Three 3-way switches and one 4-way switch |
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51.
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Electrical resistance is measured in what units?
a. | Ohms | b. | Volts | c. | Amperes | d. | Horsepower |
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52.
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What is the electrical device that measures and registers the amount of power
used by the consumer?
a. | Voltmeter | c. | Tachometer | b. | Ohmmeter | d. | Kilowatt hour
meter |
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53.
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The UL abbreviation on electrical equipment is the acronym for what
designation?
a. | Usage limited | c. | Underground lights | b. | Unlimited length | d. | Underwriter’s
Laboratory |
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54.
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What is the purpose of the ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI)?
a. | Provide protection from electrical shock | b. | Signal the
probability of an earthquake | c. | Render an appliance
inoperable | d. | Measure stray voltage |
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55.
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IF an 120-volt incandescent lighting load has 80 ohms of resistance, what
amperage is the lighting system using? Note: voltage= amperage x ohms
a. | .2 ohms | b. | .7 ohms | c. | 1.5 ohms | d. | 15.0
ohms |
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56.
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If an 120-volt incandescent lighting load uses 25 amps, what is the resistance
(ohms) of the lighting system? Note: voltage= amperage x ohms
a. | .2 ohms | b. | 4.8 ohms | c. | 48.0 ohms | d. | 120.0
ohms |
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57.
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If an incandescent lighting system uses 4 amps and has 60 ohms of resistance,
what voltage is required to operate the system properly? Note: voltage= amperage x ohms
a. | 60 volts | b. | 120 volts | c. | 240 volts | d. | 480
volts |
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58.
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If an incandescent lighting system operates at 120 volts and uses 12 amps of
current, what power (watts) will the system require? Note: Wattage= voltage x amperage
a. | 10 Watts | b. | 120 Watts | c. | 1440 Watts | d. | 2880
Watts |
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59.
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If an incandescent lighting system uses 6000 Watts of power and operates at 150
amps, what is the resistance (ohms) of the system? Note: Wattage= voltage x amperage
a. | .03 ohms | b. | .25 ohms | c. | 40.00 ohms | d. | 120.00
ohms |
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60.
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What nominal measurement is generally used to identify the size of plumbing
pipe?
a. | O.D. (outside diameter) | c. | Circumference | b. | I.D. (inside
diameter) | d. | Length
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61.
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Which pipe measurement allows all standard threaded steel pipe, regardless of
the pipe’s classification or schedule, to fit standard pipe fittings?
a. | O.D. (outside diameter) | c. | Wall thickness | b. | I.D. (inside
diameter) | d. | Length |
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62.
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Copper tubing may be joined by flaring, compression, or soldering. What is then
name commonly given to the soldering process when used on copper plumbing pipe?
a. | Welding | b. | Brazing | c. | Sweating | d. | Threading |
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63.
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Copper tubing is color coded and lettered as to type, the name or trademark of
the manufacturer, and the country of origin. Which of the following is a type of copper tubing with
its color designation?
a. | K-green | b. | ABS-blue | c. | CPVC-tan | d. | PVC-white |
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64.
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Which of the following is a pipe joining process that uses flux?
a. | Flaring | b. | Threading | c. | Soldering | d. | Compression |
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65.
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PVC is the abbreviation for what type of plastic pipe?
a. | Polyvinyl chlorine | c. | Polyvinyl chloride | b. | Polyvinyl chlorate | d. | Polybutylene |
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66.
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Which of the following plastic pipes is commonly installed for sanitary drainage
and for vent piping?
a. | Chlorinated polyvinyl chloride (CPVC) | c. | Polybutylene
(PE) | b. | Acrylonitrile butadiene styrene (ABS) | d. | Type K |
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67.
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When is it necessary to angle or change the direction of plumbing pipes, which
of the following fittings should be used?
a. | Union | b. | Elbow | c. | Bushing | d. | Coupling |
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68.
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Which of the following elbow angles causes less friction in the line and is
preferred for drain-waste-vent (dwv) systems because it reduces the likelihood of line
clogging?
a. | 45 degrees | b. | 75 degrees | c. | 90 degrees | d. | 180
degrees |
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69.
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Which plumbing fitting resembles a short piece of pipe with external threads on
each end?
a. | Joint | b. | Nipple | c. | Coupling | d. | Street
Elbow |
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70.
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Which plumbing fitting is used to connect a branch pipeline to a main pipeline
at a 90 degree angle?
a. | Tee | b. | Wye | c. | Union | d. | Coupling |
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71.
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Which plumbing fitting is used to connect a branch line to the main line at a 45
degree angle?
a. | Tee | b. | Wye | c. | Union | d. | Coupling |
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72.
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Which plumbing fitting is used to join two pieces of pipe?
a. | Cap | b. | Plug | c. | Bushing | d. | Coupling |
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73.
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Which plumbing fitting is used to reduce the size of an internal opening in
another fitting so a smaller size pipe may be connected?
a. | Street elbow | b. | Bushing | c. | Union | d. | Tee |
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74.
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Plumbing pipes are frequently buried in the ground 4 feet deep or deeper. When
digging a trench to this depth the trench walls should be shored or fortified to protect from what
danger?
a. | Pipe corrosion | c. | Trench wall cave in | b. | Soil contamination | d. | Excess pipe
pressures |
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75.
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A pipe with water flowing through it at a rate of 20 gallons per minute has an
average vertical head loss of 22.8 feet per 100 feet or horizontal run. What is the head (pressure)
loss in 30 horizontal feet of this pipe?
a. | .68 feet of head loss | c. | 76.00 feet of head loss | b. | 6.84 feet of head
loss | d. | 684.00 feet of head
loss |
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76.
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Water flows at a rate of 5 gallons per minute horizontally through 50 feet of a
3/4” inside diameter pipeline having three 90 degree elbows. The pressure loss through the pipe
is 5.7 vertical feet of loss per 100 feet of horizontal run. The pressure loss through each elbow is
equivalent to that of 2 additional horizontal feet in pipe length. What is the total head (pressure)
loss for the 50 foot horizontal pipeline with three 90 degree elbows?
a. | 2.850 feet of total head loss | c. | 91.920 feet of total head
loss | b. | 3.192 feet of total head loss | d. | 319.200 feet of total head
loss |
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77.
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If a pipe has a friction loss of 275 gallons per hour, what is the equivalent
loss in gallons per minute? (gpm)
Note: 1 hour = 60 minutes
a. | 2.75 gpm | b. | 4.58 gpm | c. | 16.55 gpm | d. | 27.87
gpm |
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78.
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Head (pressure) losses in plumbing pipe are measured in both vertical feet of
head loss and pounds per square inch (psi). The mathematical conversion from feet of head loss to psi
is 2.31 vertical feet of head= 1 psi. If a pipe has 82 feet of vertical head loss, what is the
equivalent pressure loss in psi?
a. | .03 psi | b. | 35.50 psi | c. | 189.42 psi | d. | 820.20
psi |
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79.
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If the outside circumference of a pipe is 2.639 inches, which of the following
is the minimum sized drill bit that can be used to bore a hole that will allow the pipe to pass
through the opening?
Note: Circumference of a circle= Pie x diameter
a. | .500” diameter drill bit | c. | .750” diameter drill
bit | b. | .625” diameter drill bit | d. | .875” diameter drill
bit |
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80.
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What are the potential pollutants of concern from animal waste?
a. | Vitamins, homogenized by products, milk solids, and stomach acids | b. | Nutrients,
pathogens, organic matter, and solids | c. | Nutrients, vitamin, and
minerals | d. | Three fecal coliform bacteria |
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81.
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Historically the USDA and USEPA recognize which of the following options
as the best method of utilizing animal manures?
a. | Dumping manure in a landfill | c. | Burning manure for
fuel | b. | Applying manure to farmland | d. | Composting |
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82.
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Which of the following correctly identifies what each letter stands for in the
acronym CAFO?
a. | Concentrated animal feeding operation | c. | Confined and field
operations | b. | Confined animal feeder operation | d. | Cows and feeding
operations |
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83.
|
How are AFOs defined?
a. | Farms and ranches with animals grazing on open range | b. | Farms and ranches
where animals are confined and given feed | c. | Farms and ranches that utilize fences to
control grazing and movement of cattle | d. | Farms and ranches where animals are confined to
two hours each day and are given supplemental feed |
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84.
|
Which nutrient associated with animal waste pollution can move into groundwater
and cause Blue Baby Syndrome in infants?
a. | Nitrate | c. | Phosphorous | b. | Ammonia | d. | Micronutrients |
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85.
|
Which nutrient associated with animal waste pollution can move into groundwater
and cause Blue Baby Syndrome in infants?
a. | Nitrate | c. | Phosphorous | b. | Ammonia | d. | Micronutrients |
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86.
|
Which of the following phrases correctly describes manure when it is properly
stored and used?
a. | A major environmental liability | c. | An economic
disadvantage | b. | A major environmental hazard | d. | A valuable
resource |
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87.
|
Which of the following is an example of non-point source pollution?
a. | Pollution from a variety of small sources | b. | A single large
pollution source within a watershed area | c. | Pollution from a large dairy operation adjacent
to a subdivision | d. | The discharge from a municipality or a factory that treats its
waste |
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88.
|
On the average, how much manure will one, 1000 pound steer produce?
a. | One cubic foot of manure per hour | c. | One cubic foot of manure per
week | b. | One cubic foot of manure per day | d. | One cubic foot of manure per
month |
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89.
|
Which of the following describes the correct outcome of composting
manure?
a. | Increase the number of disease-causing organisms in the waste | b. | Reduce in the size
of the manure pile | c. | Increase nitrogen in the
waste | d. | Reduces heavy metals |
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90.
|
What are two of the many natural earth grading and shaping techniques that can
reduce erosion and help to blend landforms in the landscape?
a. | Slope rounding and slope reduction | c. | Tidal waves and
hurricanes | b. | Earthquake and volcanic eruption | d. | Screening and
covering |
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91.
|
In what way can vegetation alter microclimate and regulate temperature?
a. | Changing wind directions | c. | Reducing or increasing wind
velocity | b. | Reducing and increasing rainfall | d. | Eliminating all environmental
variables |
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92.
|
Orienting the long axis of the building in a northeast-southeast direction and
using small overhangs on a roof, would tend to affect a building in what way?
a. | Increase the natural heat in a building | b. | Decrease the natural
heat in a building | c. | Increase the natural ventilation in a
building | d. | Decrease the natural ventilation in a building |
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93.
|
If wheat has an average weight of 56 pounds per bushel and there are 0.453
kilograms in one pound, how many kilograms are there in 50 bushels of wheat? Note 16 ounces = one
pound
a. | 22.7 kilograms | c. | 1,268.4 kilograms | b. | 25.4 kilograms | d. | 1,840.7
kilograms |
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94.
|
If a dairy grazing field is irrigated at a rate of 1.25 inches of water per
hour, how many hours are needed to irrigate the field to the equivalent of one acre-foot of
water?
Note: One acre-foot of water is equivalent to an acre of water, one foot deep.
a. | 0.1 hour | b. | 2.4 hours | c. | 4.8 hours | d. | 9.6
hours |
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95.
|
If a field has an area of 1.6 hectares, what is the equivalent size in square
feet?
Note: 1 hectare = 10,000 square meters 1 foot = 0.3048
a. | 52,493.4 square feet | c. | 224,934.4 square feet | b. | 172,222.6 square
feet | d. | 528,000.0 square
feet |
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96.
|
If a field has an area of 230 acres, what is the equivalent size in
hectares?
Note: 1 acre = 43,560 square feet 1 hectare = 10,000 square
meters 1 foot = 0.3048
a. | 93.1 hectares | c. | 1,014.9 hectares | b. | 931.1 hectares | d. | 10,149.4
hectares |
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97.
|
A round storage bin is 12 feet in diameter and filled to a depth of 10 feet. If
grain weighs 50 pounds per cubic foot, how many pounds of corn are in the bin?
Note: Volume
of Cylinder = height x pie x [( diameter)2)4]
a. | 56,548.7 pounds | c. | 5,654,866.8 pounds | b. | 565,486.6 pounds | d. | 8,261,946.5
pounds |
|