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1994 National Agricultural Mechanics Test



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

Air speed is increased as it passes through the carburetor because of the:

a.

high speed jet

b.

venturi

c.

float

d.

economizer

 

 2. 

One of the purposes of a crankcase breather is to:

a.

keep a partial vacuum in the crankcase

b.

filter the air before it enters the carburetor

c.

pressurize two-cycle engine crankcase

d.

increase volumetric efficiency

 

 3. 

Ignition normally occurs:

a.

just after TDC on the power stroke

b.

at the end of the exhaust stroke

c.

at the end of the intake stroke

d.

just before, or at the TDC of the compression stroke

 

 4. 

Increasing the tension of a governor spring will:

a.

increase engine speed

c.

hold the throttle in position better

b.

decrease engine speed

d.

advance ignition timing

 

 5. 

The ratio of rotation of the camshaft to the crankshaft on a four stroke-cycle engine is:

a.

1:1

b.

1:2

c.

2:1

d.

2:2

 

 6. 

The SAE rating of a oil indicates its:

a.

viscosity

b.

service classification

c.

corrosion resistance

d.

whether is used in gas or diesel engines

 

 7. 

The ratio of the total volume of the cylinder with the piston at BDC compared to the total volume with the piston at TDC is known as:

a.

clearance volume

c.

stroke

b.

piston displacement

d.

compression ratio

 

 8. 

The storage capacity of condensers is measured in:

a.

volts

b.

ohms

c.

microfarads

d.

amps

 

 9. 

When measuring the gap of a used spark plug, a              should be used.

a.

flat feeler gauge

c.

micrometer

b.

vernier caliper

d.

wire of round feeler gauge

 

 10. 

The float height of float-type carburetors is adjusted by:

a.

bending the float arm

b.

adding or removing carburetor bowl gaskets

c.

adjusting the tab or tang on the float

d.

adjusting the length of the float needle valve

 

 11. 

The API service rating of crankcase oils recommended for use in small gas engines is:

a.

SG

b.

SB

c.

CA

d.

CE

 

 12. 

Under normal conditions, an oil- foam air cleaner should be cleaned every           hours.

a.

5

b.

10

c.

25

d.

50

 

 13. 

If there is not sufficient valve tappet clearance in engines that do not have adjustable tappets, it is obtained by:

a.

grinding the end of the tappet

c.

grinding the end of the valve stem

b.

adjusting the lockout assembly

d.

grinding the rocker arm

 

 14. 

A partially sheared flywheel key may result in a hard starting engine because the:

a.

valve timing may be advanced

c.

ignition points do not open correctly

b.

ignition timing is not correct

d.

armature air gap is too close

 

 15. 

A manufacture of two-cycle engines recommends mixing fuel to oil with a  32:1 mixture. How much oil should be mixed with 5 gallons of fuel?

a.

8 ounces

b.

16 ounces

c.

20 ounces

d.

24 ounces

 

 16. 

The slow-moving vehicle (SMV) emblem identifies machinery that normally travels slower than:

a.

30 MPH

b.

25 MPH

c.

Posted Speed

d.

35 MPH

 

 17. 

A class “A” fire extinguisher should be used on which of the following:

a.

ordinary combustibles like paper, wood, ect.

b.

Flammable liquids like gasoline, diesel fuel, and grease

c.

fires involving electrical equipment

d.

fires involving metals

 

 18. 

Which of the following guards are designed for use in down, damp, heavy crops?

a.

rock guards

c.

Lipless guards

b.

regular guards

d.

two-tined or double guards

 

 19. 

The density of a bale is set by adjusting the:

a.

needles

b.

tension bars

c.

hay dogs

d.

measuring wheel

 

 20. 

Which statement best describes the correct time for baling with a round bale?

a.

Bale as quickly as possible after mowing to retain maximum weight and nutrient valve.

b.

A good rule of thumb is to use the same moisture content as is acceptable for baling hay with conventional square balers.

c.

To prevent internal molding because bales are much larger, hay should be allowed to dry and cure one day longer than is acceptable with conventional square balers.

d.

It really does not matter because most round balers are stored outside and the hay will continue to dry out if needed.

 

 21. 

On a cutter bar mower, the ledger plates serve:

a.

As dividers for the plants as they enter the cutting area

b.

As one of the cutting edges

c.

Only as a wear surface

d.

None of these choices are correct

 

 22. 

There is a potential for injury or death when working or operating around any type of agricultural machinery including hay equipment. Of the signal words used with safety-alert symbols to draw attention to potentially unsafe areas, which word(s) is (are) used to indicate the most serious potential hazard is present?

a.

Danger!

c.

Caution!

b.

Warning!

d.

Attention!  Be Alert!

 

 23. 

For most efficient operation, hay should be raked:

a.

Immediately after mowing to prevent leaf shatter.

b.

Only when it is dry enough to bale.

c.

In the same direction as the crop was cut with the mower.

d.

In the reverse direction as the crop was cut with the mower.

 

 24. 

What is the purpose of a hay crimper of crusher?

a.

to compact the material to a smaller space

b.

to decrease field drying time

c.

make hay easier to chop

d.

it is the first step in making pellets

 

 25. 

Reel speed of a mower conditioner should be:

a.

slightly slower than ground speed

b.

exactly the same as ground speed

c.

slightly faster than ground speed

d.

dependent of if the crop i s down or tangled then it would be slower

 

 26. 

Which of the following methods of cutting is used by a disk mower to cut hay?

a.

shear

b.

impact

c.

tearing

d.

speed

 

 27. 

When unplugging a reel on a hay conditioner:

a.

The tractor should be in neutral and the PTO off.

b.

The tractor should be in park and the PTO  off.

c.

The tractor engine should be shut off.

d.

The tractor engine and PTO should be shut off.

 

 28. 

On a small square baler the bale weight is not determined by:

a.

spring tension on the bale chamber

c.

moisture content of the material

b.

twine tension adjustment

d.

type of material

 

 29. 

Which of the following is not a part of a square baler knotter?

a.

needle

b.

bobbin

c.

bill hook

d.

knife

 

 30. 

When operating a forage harvester, which of the following is (are) a probable cause of ragged cut ends or excessive cob lengths?

a.

dull cutter head knives

b.

dull shear bar (stationary knife)

c.

excessive knife-to-shear bar clearance

d.

all of these will cause ragged cut ends or excessive cob lengths

 

 31. 

Load-carrying capacity of rectangular lumber members, with ends supported, is greatest when:

a.

installed on edge

b.

installed flatwise

c.

placed in either position because both have the same load-carrying capacity

d.

placed as a plank

 

 32. 

A building component that spans door or window openings is called a:

a.

still

b.

cripple

c.

plate

d.

header

 

 33. 

Correct installation of shingles includes:

a.

use redwood or cedar

b.

double the starting course at the roof edge

c.

placing up to one-half the shingle exposed to weather

d.

all of these are correct

 

 34. 

Framing anchors are used to:

a.

reduce the number of fasteners in a building

b.

increase the length of framing members

c.

increase the strength of joint connections

d.

increase the strength of framing members

 

 35. 

A truss rafter supports a heavy load because it is composed of members assembled to form:

a.

one or more triangles

c.

one or more boxes

b.

one or more rectangles

d.

one or more planes

 

 36. 

An advantage of pole building construction is:

a.

extra roof support from interior structural members

b.

that it can be easily remodeled to more than one story in height

c.

the capacity to withstand lateral pressure on walls

d.

that it is less expensive due to the minimal foundation requirement

 

 37. 

The chemical reaction that causes concrete paste to harden is called:

a.

aeration

b.

chemigation

c.

hydration

d.

reagentation

 

 38. 

Air-entrained concrete should be used for all construction that will be exposed to:

a.

warm and moist soil

b.

hot and dry soil

c.

freezing, thawing, and deicing

d.

heavy loads

 

 39. 

The water:cement ratio of a concrete mix is and indictor of:

a.

durability and resistance to freeze-thaw action

b.

compressive strength

c.

water-tightness

d.

all of these are correct

 

 40. 

A mixture of concrete recommended for good workability and water tightness should not exceed:

a.

three gallons of water per sack mix

b.

four gallons of water per sack mix

c.

five gallons of water per sack mix

d.

six gallons of water per sack mix

 

 41. 

Concrete surfaces for outside walkways and for confined water tightness should not exceed:

a.

a steel trowel

c.

a steel float and wood trowel

b.

a magnesium trowel

d.

a course broom

 

 42. 

Concrete is reinforced to compensate for relatively low:

a.

compressive strength

c.

consistency

b.

tensile strength

d.

slump

 

 43. 

The standard cure time for concrete strength comparison for tests is:

a.

three days

c.

twenty on days

b.

fifteen days

d.

twenty eight days

 

 44. 

When set in place with mortar, the dimensions of a standard masonry unit:

a.

all increase to nominal sizes

b.

for length and width, increase to nominal sizes

c.

for width and height , increase to nominal sizes

d.

remain the same so that the sum of the block lengths equals wall length

 

 45. 

Concrete blocks should always be installed when:

a.

dampened

b.

thoroughly dry

c.

well cured

d.

thoroughly dry & well cured are correct

 

 46. 

The agency responsible for testing of electrical wiring materials to ensure that these products meet specific minimum standards is the:

a.

NEC-National Electric Code

b.

NEPA- National Fire Protection Association

c.

UL- Underwriters Laboratory

d.

MWPS- Midwest Plan Service

 

 47. 

The electrical symbol, S4, denotes which of the following?

a.

An electrical wall plate containing 4 duplex receptacles banked together.

b.

An electrical wall plate containing 4 single pole switches

c.

A 4 way switch

d.

All of these are correct.

 

 48. 

The circuits found in the home that supply power for lighting, radios, television, vacuum cleaners, and other 15 amp receptacles are properly referred to as:

a.

small appliance circuits

b.

general purpose branch circuits

c.

individual circuits

d.

feeder circuits

 

 49. 

Which of the following describe the proper size conductor and overcurrent protection for the small appliance circuits found in the kitchen and laundry room?

a.

AWG 14, 15 amp

c.

AWG 12, 20 amp

b.

AWG 12, 15 amp

d.

AWG 10, 30 amp

 

 50. 

A circuit that is wired directly from the SEP to only one item such as a 220 volt AC transformer welder is correctly identified as a/and:

a.

Ampacity circuit

b.

Appliance circuit

c.

General purpose branch circuit

d.

Individual branch circuit

 

 51. 

The proper name for the tool that removes the outer sheathing on NM type cable is called a:

a.

Wire stripper

b.

Wire ripper

c.

Cable stripper

d.

Cable ripper

 

 52. 

A portable electric drill requires 115 volts and draws 3 amps. The resistance is this motor should be:

a.

345 ohms

b.

345 watts

c.

38.3 watts

d.

38.3 ohms

 

 53. 

Electric rates are 7.5 cents per kwhr. A 120 volt portable heater rated at 7.8 amps is operated 24 hours a day for 30 days. What is the cost of operating this heater over the 30 day period?

a.

$70.20

b.

$673.92

c.

$50.54

d.

$5.05

 

 54. 

Electrical pressure is expressed by the term:

a.

wattage

c.

ohms or resistance

b.

kilowatt

d.

voltage

 

 55. 

On 120 volt circuits, controls (switches - circuit breakers) are connected in the:

a.

Equipment grounding conductor

c.

Grounded (neutral) conductor

b.

Ungrounded conductor

d.

None of these are correct

 

 56. 

Which of the following does not affect the resistance of an electrical conductor.

a.

the type of material it is made of

b.

The size or cross-sectional area of the conductor

c.

The length of the conductor

d.

Type of insulation covering the conductor

 

 57. 

Ground fault circuit interrupters are required when wiring a new home. The National Electric Code requires that certain 120 volt wall outlets in the following areas have this type of protection.

a.

Bathrooms

c.

Near kitchen sinks

b.

Attached garages

d.

All of these are correct

 

 58. 

A 225 volt heater that draws 13.6 amperes will used the following amount the power.

a.

16.5 watts

b.

2.4 kw

c.

3.1 kw

d.

254 kw

 

 59. 

Which of the following is true regarding a series circuit?

a.

the voltage is equal throughout the circuit

b.

the amperage is equal throughout the circuit

c.

the resistance is equal throughout the circuit

d.

All of the above are correct

 

 60. 

The two types of 3-phase electrical systems are:

a.

series and parallel

c.

step up and step down

b.

resistance and inductive

d.

delta and wye

 

 61. 

A molecule of acetylene is composed of:

a.

carbon and hydrogen

c.

carbon and oxygen

b.

hydrogen and oxygen

d.

carbon monoxide and hydrogen

 

 62. 

The oxy-fuel welding gas that produces the highest temperature flame when combined with oxygen is:

a.

propane

b.

MAPP

c.

acetylene

d.

natural gas

 

 63. 

The oxy-acetylene cutting process, metal is:

a.

oxidized

b.

hydrolyzed

c.

melted

d.

coalesced

 

 64. 

When selecting an oxy-acetylene welding tip for a specific job, the first factor to consider is:

a.

required oxygen pressure

b.

metal thickness

c.

required oxygen pressure

d.

orfice size

 

 65. 

                 flows from the center of the orfice of an oxy-acetylene cutting nozzle.

a.

Oxygen

c.

Acetylene

b.

Oxygen and acetylene

d.

Oxygen or acetylene

 

 66. 

Acetylene gas is:

a.

heavier than air

b.

colorless

c.

odorless

d.

non-flammable

 

 67. 

Oil is never used to lubricate the oxy-acetylene welder because it can:

a.

contaminate the weld gaskets

c.

deteriorate seals & gaskets

b.

clog small openings

d.

cause a fire or explosion

 

 68. 

What is the maximum safe hourly withdrawal rate ( ft 31 / hr. ) from a 125 ft3 acetylene cylinder?

a.

10.8 ft3

b.

24.8 ft3

c.

17.8 ft3

d.

31.8 ft3

 

 69. 

A                prevents the backflow of oxygen or acetylene into the hoses.

a.

flash arrestor

b.

reverse flow check valve

c.

backflow valve

d.

positive pressure differential valve

 

 70. 

The             welding technique is used when welding steel 1/8” or thinner by the oxy-acetylene welding process.

a.

backhand

b.

forehand

c.

downhand

d.

uphand

 

 71. 

Which of the following is not a function of the flux on a brazing rod?

a.

remove surface oxides

b.

aid in capillary action

c.

prevent atmospheric contamination

d.

promote tinning of base metal

 

 72. 

The type oxy-acetylene flame having the highest temperature is the              flame.

a.

pure acetylene

c.

neutral

b.

carburizing

d.

oxidizing

 

 73. 

An oxygen cylinder valve should be completely opened while in use to allow:

a.

unrestricted oxygen flow

b.

proper regulator operation

c.

backseating of the cylinder valve

d.

all of these are correct

 

 74. 

Plasma-arc welding produces a temperature of approximately             ºF.

a.

10,000

b.

30,000

c.

20,000

d.

40,000

 

 75. 

The most likely cause of top edge melting during oxy-acetylene cutting is:

a.

the travel speed too fast

b.

that pre-heat flames are too close

c.

irregular travel speed

d.

a malfunctioning cutting tip

 

 76. 

Water drainage from the soil surface is usually accomplished by:

a.

constructing terraces

b.

planting on the contour

c.

installing drainage pipes

d.

land grading or shallow ditch

 

 77. 

For fertilizer and herbicides to be applied through an irrigation system, they must be:

a.

made of liquid and be emulsifiable

b.

water soluble and emulsifiable

c.

made of powdery substance

d.

made of a liquid substance

 

 78. 

The purpose of the orfice in a pressure pump-type irrigation system is to:

a.

break down the chemical being applied

b.

meter the rate of flow of the water

c.

emulsify the chemical being applied

d.

liquify the chemical being used

 

 79. 

The primary purpose of the pressure regulator in a pressure pump type of irrigation system is to:

a.

regulate the pressure at which the chemical is being applied

b.

mix air with the solution in the chemical tank

c.

prevent the chemical from returning to the tank

d.

allow excess solution to return to the tank

 

 80. 

An acre-inch of water is correctly described as:

a.

water one inch deep covering a one acre area.

b.

one cubic inch of water over a one acre area

c.

one square inch of water over a one acre area

d.

one cubic centimeter of water over a one acre area.

 

 81. 

Determine the amount (acre-inches per day) of water needed for a 50 acre corn crop that is a daily peak-use rate of .20 inches.

a.

1

b.

10

c.

100

d.

250

 

 82. 

A creek is 6 feet wide and has an average depth of 9 inches, what is the cross-sectional area of the stream?

a.

4.5 ft2

c.

5.4 ft2

b.

8.0 ft2

d.

9.6 ft2

 

 83. 

Which of the following soil type has the highest water intake rate?

a.

fine

b.

course

c.

medium

d.

peats and muck

 

 84. 

A multi-sprinkler, tractor moved irrigation system, should not exceed          percent slope during operation.

a.

5

b.

10

c.

15

d.

20

 

 85. 

The level land type of surface irrigation system, is limited to a slope of less than          .

a.

.1 percent slope

c.

.3 percent slope

b.

.2 percent slope

d.

.5 percent slope

 

 86. 

Emitters are used on which type of irrigation system?

a.

surface

b.

trickle

c.

sprinkler

d.

subirrigation

 

 87. 

In irrigation calculations, what is the reference crop to which water comparisons are made for other crops?

a.

corn

b.

wheat

c.

alfalfa

d.

clover hay

 

 88. 

What is the erosion control method normally used to protect the soil when regular crops are not being grown on a tract of land?

a.

vegetative crop

c.

strip cropping

b.

crop rotation

d.

cover crop

 

 89. 

Which of the following is a source of nonpoint pollution?

a.

feedlots

c.

sediment from croplands

b.

milking centers

d.

pesticide disposal sites

 

 90. 

The type of erosion that forms washes or channels when the water concentrates into small rivulets in the field is called:

a.

rill erosion

c.

sheet erosion

b.

gully erosion

d.

steam bank erosion

 



 

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