Javascript not enabled

 
Name: 
 

You must enter your name to take this test.

1998 National Agricultural Mechanics Test



Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

For normal turning of a bobcat, do which one of the following:

a.

Push one of the steering levers forward and the other lever backward.

b.

Move one of the steering levers farther forward than the other.

c.

Push both steering levers forward a small amount with the engine at full throttle.

d.

Push one foot pedal in the direction of desiring turning. Hold the other in neutral position.

 

 2. 

To lower the lift arm, do which one of the following:

a.

Push the bottom (heel) of the right pedal.

b.

Push the top (toe) of the right pedal.

c.

Push the bottom (heel) of the left pedal.

d.

Push the top (toe) of the left pedal.

 

 3. 

To tilt the bucket forward, do which one of the following:

a.

Push the right top (toe) foot pedal.

b.

Push the left top (toe) foot pedal.

c.

Push the right bottom (heel) foot pedal.

d.

Push the left bottom (heel) foot pedal.

 

 4. 

To prevent overheating, loss of performance, or engine damage,  the cooling system of the engine should be checked:

a.

After every 50 hours of operation.

b.

After every 250 hours of operation.

c.

Daily

d.

Only if you notice the engine is getting hot.

 

 5. 

When using a loader or a tractor with a front bucket,

a.

the lift arms should be lowered before leaving the operator’s seat.

b.

the lift arms should be left in the full up position to prevent oil from leaking from the lift cylinders.

c.

the lift arm must be adjusted frequently to keep the bucket level.

d.

a lift arm can be used as a point to attach a chain for pulling a stuck pickup.

 

 6. 

The capacity of the bobcat engine crankcase with filter of the engine is:

a.

7.5 quarts

b.

8 quarts

c.

10 quarts

d.

10.5 quarts

 

 7. 

After the first 50 hours, the hydraulic/hydrostatic filter element should be changed:

a.

Every 250 hours.

b.

When the transmission warning light comes on.

c.

Every 100 hours.

d.

According to operating condition.

 

 8. 

The net horsepower (HP) of the engine is:

a.

40 HP

b.

46 HP

c.

50 HP

d.

60 HP

 

 9. 

The service brake(s) of the machine is (are) controlled by:

a.

A foot-operated pedal.

b.

A hand-controlled lever connected to one of the hydrostatic transmissions.

c.

Two foot pedals.

d.

Two independent hydrostatic systems controlled by two hand-operated levers.

 

 10. 

The parking brake of the machine is:

a.

A foot-operated pedal.

b.

A hand-controlled lever connected to one of the hydrostatic transmissions.

c.

Two foot pedals.

d.

Two independent hydrostatic systems controlled by two hand-operated levers.

 

 11. 

The hydraulic function time of the “raise lift arm” is:

a.

5.0 seconds

b.

4.5 seconds

c.

3.75 seconds

d.

1.72 seconds

 

 12. 

When driving a skid steer, to complete a 180û turn to the right in the shortest distance

a.

the steering wheel should be turned to full right.

b.

the left steering lever should be maximum forward and the right lever should be maximum backward.

c.

the right or left turning brake should be used.

d.

the right steering lever should be maximum forward and the left lever should be maximum backward.

 

 13. 

To travel in reverse when using the skid steer, you should:

a.

Pull the right steering lever back.

b.

Pull the left steering lever back.

c.

Pull both right and left steering levers back.

d.

Place hydrostatic transmission in reverse position.

 

 14. 

To stop the movement of the skid steer, you should:

a.

Move the steering levers to the neutral position.

b.

Apply pressure to the service brake.

c.

Move the hydrostatic transmission lever to the stop position.

d.

Apply pressure to the park brake.

 

 15. 

Which of the following conditions is recommended when starting the engines of the bobcat skid steer?

a.

Turn the key to the run position.

b.

Place the foot pedals and steering levers in the neutral position.

c.

Set the speed control levers at full throttle.

d.

Release the park brake.

 

 16. 

When going down a slope in a bobcat with a full load, the operator should:

a.

Move in the forward direction with the bucket on the down-side of the slope as near the ground as possible.

b.

Move in the reverse direction with the bucket on the up-side of the slope as near the ground as possible.

c.

Move in the forward direction with the bucket on the down-side of the slope and at least 3 feet from the ground.

d.

Move in the reverse direction with the bucket on the up-side of the slope and at least 3 feet from the ground.

 

 17. 

To fill the bucket of the machine, the operator will:

a.

Move the right hand lever toward the operator.

b.

Apple pressure to the heel of the right pedal.

c.

Push the top (toe) of the right pedal.

d.

Move the left hand lever away from the operator.

 

 18. 

The fuel filter for the bobcat engine should be changed every:

a.

50 hours

b.

100 hours

c.

250 hours

d.

500 hours

 

 19. 

The interlocks on the seat bar restraint system of the bobcat control:

a.

The opening and closing of the cab.

b.

The height of the seat for different size of operators.

c.

The amount of tension on the seat springs.

d.

The operator’s ability to use the foot pedal controls.

 

 20. 

To empty the bucket of the bobcat, the operator will:

a.

Move the right hand lever away from the operator.

b.

Move the left hand lever away from the operator.

c.

Apply pressure to the heel of the right pedal.

d.

Apply pressure to the toe of the left pedal.

 

 21. 

A tomato producer applying pesticide to a tomato crop wishes to minimize drift. He should

a.

use a very low application rate.

b.

keep nozzles as near to the ground as possible.

c.

spray when winds are 10 mph or more.

d.

use a nozzle that produces the smallest droplets possible.

 

 22. 

The signal word on a safety alert symbol that indicates the most serious potential hazard is ___________.

a.

Caution

b.

Warning

c.

Danger

d.

Attention

 

 23. 

Sheltering farm machinery can be financially beneficial due to:

a.

increased resale value.

c.

increased repair costs.

b.

increased machine life.

d.

increased storage costs.

 

 24. 

A sprayer operator is preparing to spray tomatoes. To increase the application rate of pesticides she can:

a.

lower the pressure.

c.

use a smaller tip size.

b.

add more water to the tank.

d.

decrease her ground speed.

 

 25. 

The best source of information on the safe operation of a specific piece of farm machinery is:

a.

the operator’s manual.

c.

farm magazines.

b.

a neighbor.

d.

trial and error.

 

 26. 

The amount of free liquid in a container of vegetables after it has been frozen and thawed is a good indication of:

a.

improper freezing techniques.

b.

bacteria present in the thawed product.

c.

structural damage to the product as a result of freezing.

d.

excessive storage time for frozen products.

 

 27. 

Blanching of vegetables prior to freezing will help maintain quality of the vegetables by:

a.

slowing the freezing process.

b.

inactivating the enzymes in the vegetables.

c.

destroying bacteria.

d.

preserving vitamin C in the vegetables.

 

 28. 

The design of piping, pumps, heat exchangers, and tank agitators for fluid food materials is greatly influenced by the __________ of the materials.

a.

sugar content

b.

viscosity

c.

latent heat

d.

freezing ability

 

 29. 

Two common products from the west milling of corn are:

a.

high-fructose corn syrup and ethanol.

c.

corn chips and taco shells.

b.

corn meal and flour.

d.

tortillas and grits.

 

 30. 

Corn starch is produced by the wet milling of corn and normally results in starch yields equal to about ___ percent of the initial dry weight of the corn kernel.

a.

15

b.

47

c.

67

d.

79

 

 31. 

Popcorn pops when the moisture inside the kernel reaches about ___ degrees F.

a.

165

b.

212

c.

350

d.

475

 

 32. 

To maximize performance of a sweet corn harvesting system, the manager might try to maximize efficiency of transport by using:

a.

smaller wagon boxes

c.

longer travel distances

b.

faster road speeds

d.

using only one wagon per tow vehicle

 

 33. 

To ensure safe operation of a skid steer loader, the operator should:

a.

keep the loader fully raised.

b.

make sure the vehicle is properly counterweighted.

c.

remove safety cages to lower the center of gravity.

d.

increase operating speed.

 

 34. 

To increase the capacity of a sweet corn harvester, the operator can:

a.

use a small wagon.

c.

increase speed.

b.

plant shorter rows.

d.

decrease speed.

 

 35. 

The alkali processing of corn for food processing involves the cooking of corn in a solution of:

a.

alcohol

c.

sodium

b.

lime

d.

hydrogen peroxide

 

 36. 

Which of the following will not affect a chemical application rate?

a.

system pressure

b.

tip size

c.

tank type

d.

ground speed

 

 37. 

Which of the following is not a safety practice that should be followed when transporting sweet corn wagons on the highway?

a.

Make sure all lights operate properly.

c.

Keep tires properly inflated.

b.

Drive with one wheel on the shoulder at all times.

d.

Lock the tractor brakes together.

 

 38. 

When unplugging a sweet corn harvester, the operator should:

a.

leave the unit engaged and try to dislodge the plug.

b.

lower the harvester and drag it backwards to unplug it.

c.

disengage the power and shut off the engine.

d.

try to burn the plug in the machine.

 

 39. 

Which of the following would increase the rate of application of a pesticide on a sprayer?

a.

Add more pesticide to the tank.

b.

Drive faster.

c.

Operate the sprayer at a lower pressure.

d.

Use a smaller size nozzle.

 

 40. 

The science dealing with the deformation and flow of matter such as peas or tomatoes is known as:

a.

proteolysis

b.

psychometrics

c.

percolation

d.

rheology

 

 41. 

Electrical controls designed to be used with electric motors will have a manufacturers rating that includes:

a.

Voltage, amperage, and horsepower.

c.

Wattage foot candles, and current.

b.

Wattage, lumens, and voltage.

d.

Lumens, amperage, and current.

 

 42. 

When an electrical wiring system provides power to 230-volt, three-phase motors, the frames of the motors are connected to the system ground in order to:

a.

Complete the branch circuit.

b.

Ground the motors and reduce the likelihood of electrical shock.

c.

Prevent the motors from turning in reverse.

d.

Physically connect the motors to equipment frames.

 

 43. 

The grounded conductor in an electrical wiring system is:

a.

The neutral conductor for electrical systems.

b.

A non-current carrying conductor in most applications.

c.

The unnecessary connection of an electrical conductor to earth.

d.

The only electrical connection between the system and the earth.

 

 44. 

Electric motor enclosures are designed to protect the motor and also act as a safety enclosure the protects individuals and property from electrical shock, sparks, and fire hazards. Which of the following enclosures would be best suited for installations inside a feed mixing facility where grain dust will accumulate?

a.

An open, drip-proof motor enclosure.

c.

A totally enclosed motor enclosure.

b.

A splash-proof motor enclosure.

d.

An explosion-proof motor enclosure.

 

 45. 

A three-phase dual voltage (230/460 volts), 20 horsepower motor has a full load rating of 54 amps when operating at 230 volts. If the motor is reconnected for operation at 460 volts, what would be the amperage rating for the motor?

a.

10 amps

b.

27 amps

c.

108 amps

d.

208 amps

 

 46. 

When the correct electrical current is supplied to the magnetic coil of a motor starter and the starter contacts close to energize the motor, the contacts would be classified as:

a.

Normally closed.

c.

Neither normally open or closed

b.

Normally open.

d.

Both normally open or closed.

 

 47. 

A three phase motor should be controlled with a:

a.

Single-pole motor starter.

b.

Double-pole motor starter

c.

Triple-pole motor starter.

d.

Both a single-pole and double-pole motor starter.

 

 48. 

The nameplate on a 2 horsepower electrical motor indicates a service factor of 1.25. What is the maximum safe horsepower that this motor is rated to operate?

a.

0.75 horsepower

c.

2.50 horsepower

b.

2.00 horsepower

d.

3.25 horsepower

 

 49. 

Which of the following conductors would be the best choice for installation inside an agriculture shop?

a.

NMC cable

b.

Triplex cable

c.

USE cable

d.

UF cable

 

 50. 

When overload heaters are selected for installation in a three-phase motor starter, they should be the same size as:

a.

The safe operating amperage of the motor.

b.

The amperage of the conductors used in the specific motor circuit.

c.

The amperage of the service entrance conductors.

d.

The amperage of the circuit protection.

 

 51. 

A 115/230 volt, dual-voltage electric motor, when connected for high voltage (230 volt) operation, will require ________ and a safety ground for proper operation.

a.

one neutral (grounded) conductor and one 120 volt (ungrounded) conductor

b.

one neutral (ungrounded) conductor and one 120 (grounded) conductor

c.

two 120 volt conductors, both from one side of a 240 volt service panel

d.

two 120 volt conductors, one from each side of a 240 volt service panel

 

 52. 

According to the National Electrical Code (NEC), the circuit disconnect for larger electric motors must be within sight of the motor’s permanent location. NEC defines within sight as being not more than:

a.

5 feet

b.

50 feet

c.

200 feet

d.

500 feet

 

 53. 

According to the National Electrical Code, conductors supplying electrical power to a motor must be sized for current rating not less than ____ times the full-load amperage of the motor.

a.

0.15

b.

1.25

c.

2.50

d.

3.75

 

 54. 

A single-pole, single throw light switch, should be wired so it connects/disconnects the _____ conductor when it is used with 12-2 WG, nonmetallic sheathed cable in an 120-volt electrical lighting circuit.

a.

green/grounding

c.

black/hot/ungrounded

b.

white/grounded

d.

bare/grounding

 

 55. 

A switch with a _____ designation is commonly used to control simple 240-volt, single phase, lighting loads that are to be turned on or off from a single location.

a.

single-pole, single-throw

c.

single-pole, double-throw

b.

double-pole, single-throw

d.

double-pole, double-throw

 

 56. 

On a new three-way switch, without a grounding terminal, there will be three terminals. These terminals are:

a.

one traveler terminal, one common terminal, and one neutral terminal

b.

one common terminal, one neutral terminal, and one grounding terminal

c.

two traveler terminal and one common terminal

d.

two common terminals and one traveler terminal

 

 57. 

If a light is to be controlled from two locations, the following switches will be needed:

a.

one SPST switch and a 3-way switch

c.

two SPST switches

b.

one 3-way and one 4-way switch

d.

two 3-way switches

 

 58. 

When a motor starter is selected for a single 230 volt electric motor, which of the following would correctly identify the switching contacts?

a.

single-pole, single-throw

c.

double-pole, single-throw

b.

single-pole, double-throw

d.

double-pole, double-throw

 

 59. 

The electrical switch that should be used to automatically control pressure is called a:

a.

photoelectric switch

c.

proximity switch

b.

thermostat switch

d.

pressure switch

 

 60. 

If an electric motor is overloaded for prolonged period of times, such as an electric weedeater operated on a 200 foot extension cord, what damage occurs to the motor?

a.

The extension cord melts.

b.

The weedeater’s plastic case melts.

c.

The motor windings overheat and eventually short out, burning out the motor.

d.

The circuit protection will always trip and the motor will not burn out.

 

 61. 

Vapor barriers should be placed _______

a.

on the warm side-of a wall.

c.

on the cold side of a wall.

b.

in the center of  a wall.

d.

anywhere in a wall.

 

 62. 

Heat energy moves from one place to another in one or more of the following modes:

a.

Specific or total heat.

c.

Conduction, convection, or radiation.

b.

Latent or sensible heat.

d.

Evaporation or condensation.

 

 63. 

Vapor barriers installed to prevent moisture from penetrating through a wall are rated by:

a.

Gauge number.

c.

Static pressure rating.

b.

Perm rating.

d.

R-value.

 

 64. 

Fiberglass insulation is generally sold:

a.

in batt form.

c.

by the pound.

b.

as a structural insulation material.

d.

as a fire-proofing material.

 

 65. 

The R-value of a non-homogenous material is:

a.

listed per inch of thickness.

b.

greater than the R-value of a homogenous material.

c.

listed per total thickness of the material.

d.

would be very high because this type of material is very dense.

 

 66. 

When selecting a ventilation fan, the most important feature to consider is:

a.

horsepower rating.

b.

fan blade shape.

c.

fan efficiency.

d.

airflow capacity at given static pressures.

 

 67. 

A manometer is a device which is used to measure:

a.

Insulation R-value.

b.

Air velocity in ventilation duct work.

c.

The difference in air pressure between two environments.

d.

Electrical power consumption of ventilation fans.

 

 68. 

The most satisfactory method of excluding moisture from the insulation in controlled-atmosphere storage units is to:

a.

Install loose fill insulation with a vapor barrier on the inside surface of the buildings.

b.

Use sprayed-on “closed-cell” polyurethane insulation.

c.

Install a positive pressure ventilation system.

d.

Install high capacity dehumidifiers in the storage unit.

 

 69. 

Foam type insulation should be:

a.

Used when insulating processing plants because it is the best type.

b.

Be covered with a “fire rated” material.

c.

Exposed to the air on the cold side of a wall so that water vapor can escape from the foam.

d.

Never placed next to a concrete surface because the chemicals in concrete will destroy the foam after a few years.

 

 70. 

The two main types of fans used in ventilation systems are:

a.

Dual and single purpose.

b.

Positive and non-positive displacement.

c.

Straight and reversible.

d.

Axial and centrifugal.

 

 71. 

Which of the following materials has the highest R value?

a.

Expanded mica

c.

Extruded Polyurethane

b.

Extruded Polystyrene

d.

Cellulose fiber

 

 72. 

The rate of thermal conductivity through a material is expressed by the letter(s):

a.

R

c.

U

b.

TC

d.

BTU

 

 73. 

___________ is the ratio of the pounds of water vapor in one pound of dry air.

a.

Absolute humidity

c.

Enthalpy

b.

Relative humidity

d.

Psychometrics

 

 74. 

The difference between the pressure inside a ventilated building and the outside pressure is called:

a.

Relative pressure difference

c.

Manometer pressure

b.

Static pressure

d.

None of these

 

 75. 

A vapor barrier with a _________ permeability should be installed on the ______ of a wall or ceiling.

a.

low, cold side

b.

high, cold side

c.

low,  warm side

d.

high, warm side

 

 76. 

_______ refers to the saturation temperature corresponding to the actual vapor pressure of the moisture in the air.

a.

Relative humidity

c.

Absolute humidity

b.

Dew point

d.

Humid volume

 

 77. 

In controlled atmosphere fruit storage, ______ is the gas that will need to be removed to help preserve the fruit.

a.

oxygen

c.

carbon dioxide

b.

nitrogen

d.

carbon monoxide

 

 78. 

________ involves the transfer of kinetic energy from molecule to molecule.

a.

Conduction

b.

Convection

c.

Radiation

d.

Specific heat

 

 79. 

_________ is the heat which causes a change in state but no change in temperature.

a.

Sensible heat

b.

Joule

c.

Latent heat

d.

Specific heat

 

 80. 

Which of the following materials has the lowest R value:

a.

Glass block, 8x8x4

c.

Solid 1 inch door

b.

Concrete block 8 inch

d.

Single pane glass

 

 81. 

The gas that is most abundant in the air is:

a.

oxygen

b.

nitrogen

c.

carbon dioxide

d.

argon

 

 82. 

Air pollution first became a widespread problem:

a.

100,000 years ago.

c.

during the 1700s

b.

during the thirteenth century.

d.

about 100 years ago.

 

 83. 

The use of pesticides causes environmental concerns because:

a.

environmental groups have used pesticides as a political sounding board

b.

they work through chemical reactions to kill plants

c.

they have been biologically engineered to interact with living organism to kill or alter their makeup

d.

of their potential to destroy the ocean’s sea weeds

 

 84. 

Inappropriate use of pesticides on tomatoes may result in the user being exposed to toxic chemicals. Chemicals enter the human body by:

a.

inhalation, skin absorption, and ingestion

b.

oxidation, congestion, absorption

c.

injection, inhaling, osmosis

d.

osmosis, ingestion, particulate absorption

 

 85. 

A pollutant that can reduce the amount of oxygen carried by blood is:

a.

carbon monoxide.

c.

ozone.

b.

carbon dioxide.

d.

sulfur dioxide.

 

 86. 

The release of certain pollutants into the air may result in acid rain. A pH of 7 is neutral on the pH scale. Acid rain is considered to be a:

a.

pH of 8 up to 14.

c.

pH of 5.6.

b.

pH of 7 and below.

d.

pH of 5.5 or below.

 

 87. 

All oxides contain:

a.

carbon.

b.

hydrogen.

c.

nitrogen.

d.

oxygen.

 

 88. 

Nations belonging to the United Nations have agreed to ban CFC’s completely by the year:

a.

2000

b.

2010

c.

2020

d.

2030

 

 89. 

Sounds can cause physical pain and serious hearing loss if they are louder than:

a.

10 dB.

b.

20 dB.

c.

80 dB.

d.

120 dB.

 

 90. 

For safety, before entering a silo, grain bin or storage tank you should:

a.

check to see if the power is off.

b.

seek assistance from a helper.

c.

check for oxygen or toxic fumes in the confined space.

d.

avoid wearing respirators.

 

 91. 

The part of the human body that typically absorbs the largest amount of air pollution is the:

a.

skin

b.

ears

c.

eyes

d.

lungs

 

 92. 

An effective way of controlling emissions from today’s internal combustion engine is through the use of the:

a.

electrostatic precipitator.

c.

catalytic converter.

b.

after burner.

d.

fuel filter.

 

 93. 

The use of dust masks is an important safety feature when harvesting corn because:

a.

the inhalation of dust is an immediate serious health risk.

b.

the inhalation of dust is long term health risk.

c.

mask prevent sneezing.

d.

dust is a hazard to your vision.

 

 94. 

The decibel scale is logarithmic which means that an increase of 10 dB indicates:

a.

tenfold increase in sound energy.

c.

a fivefold increase in sound energy.

b.

a tenfold decrease in sound energy.

d.

a fivefold decrease in sound energy.

 

 95. 

A disease similar to pneumonia which is caused by inhaling grain dust is:

a.

Black lung

c.

Farmer’s lung

b.

Grain lung

d.

Lung cancer

 

 96. 

Ash, dust, and liquid droplets in the air are called

a.

particulate

c.

oxides

b.

solid waste

d.

chlorofluorocarbons

 

 97. 

The most common hydrocarbon pollutant is:

a.

propane

b.

butane

c.

ethane

d.

methane

 

 98. 

Acid deposition is the

a.

ability of limestone to act as a buffer for takes.

b.

mixing of dry acidic particles with moisture in the atmosphere.

c.

teaching of toxic elements out of rocks and soils.

d.

accumulation of aluminum on the gills of fish.

 

 99. 

Most gaseous pollutants comes from a group of chemicals called

a.

nitrites.

b.

phosphates.

c.

oxides.

d.

chlorides.

 

 100. 

A radioactive type of indoor air pollution is

a.

ozone.

c.

radon.

b.

second hand smoke.

d.

Legionaries disease.

 



 

Check Your Work    Reset

Help