Name: 
 

2009 Ashland Invitational Equine Management Test



True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
 

 1. 

Foals are particularly susceptible to threadworms.
 

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 2. 

What causes EPM?
a.
Sarcocystis neurona
c.
Serrous neuroma
b.
Virus neurona
d.
Cystic neuroma
 

 3. 

A horse with EIA’s temperature rises to:
a.
101.2º F -102.1ºF
c.
105.0ºF - 108.0ºF
b.
104.1ºF - 104.8ºF
d.
98.6ºF - 101.6ºF
 

 4. 

Equine Encephalomyelitis has how many different types?
a.
3
b.
4
c.
1
d.
9
 

 5. 

Bots cause what kind of damage?
a.
Skin damage
c.
Stomach damage
b.
Neurological damage
d.
No damage is caused
 

 6. 

Where does the mature pinworm live on/in the horse?
a.
Brain
b.
Lungs
c.
Legs
d.
Colon
 

 7. 

Ascarids are commonly called______.
a.
Bloodworms
c.
Pinworms
b.
Threadworms
d.
Roundworms
 

 8. 

What two kinds of lice infest horses?
a.
Crawling and Biting
c.
Nits and Bits
b.
Sucking and Biting
d.
Permanent and Non Permanent
 

 9. 

The winter tick is widely distributed where in the US?
a.
Eastern and Western States
c.
Northern and Western States
b.
Southern and Northern States
d.
Southern and Eastern States
 

 10. 

hCG is a hormone used to help control what?
a.
Ovulation
b.
Progesterone
c.
Motiliy
d.
Spermatozoa
 

 11. 

The scrotum contains what?
a.
The placenta
c.
The semen
b.
The two testes
d.
The cervix
 

 12. 

The average length of gestation is?
a.
134 to 140 days
c.
390 to 400 days
b.
335 to 350 days
d.
12 to 15 days
 

 13. 

Foaling is divided into how many stages?
a.
5
b.
3
c.
12
d.
9
 

 14. 

What is viral arteritis?
a.
Lower Respiratory
c.
Upper Respiratory
b.
Middle Respiratory
d.
Viral Respiratory
 

 15. 

What is the treatment for melanoma?
a.
Cimetidine
b.
Symetidine
c.
Clemtidine
d.
Sistridine
 

 16. 

The horse should be tied with what knot?
a.
Quick Release
c.
Bowline
b.
Square Knot
d.
Slip Knot
 

 17. 

Coprophagy is eating_____.
a.
Dirt
b.
Grass
c.
Feces
d.
Wood
 

 18. 

What is the primary victor for lyme disease?
a.
Winter Ticks
c.
Dog Ticks
b.
Summer Ticks
d.
Deer Ticks
 

 19. 

What year was Potomac Horse Fever discovered?
a.
1976
b.
1979
c.
1978
d.
1975
 

 20. 

Paint horses with black pigmented skin and coat color is referred to as what?
a.
Skewbald
b.
Tigbald
c.
Tiebald
d.
Piebald
 

 21. 

Horses under 5 years of age mainly use what to train with?
a.
Tom Thumb
c.
Bosal
b.
Correction Bit
d.
Non of the above
 

 22. 

What are these tools used for: Pritchel, Divider, Hardy, Tongs, and Nail Clincher.
a.
Foaling
b.
Riding
c.
Shoeing
d.
Showing
 

 23. 

A modification of the chestnut color is what?
a.
Perlino
b.
Cremello
c.
Roan
d.
Albino
 

 24. 

Twilight hours cause what?
a.
Morning Blindness
b.
Night Blindness
c.
None of these are correct
d.
Mourning Blindness and Night Blindness
 

 25. 

Where is the apex located?
a.
The head
c.
The tail
b.
The stomach
d.
The back
 

 26. 

What is the ideal time frame for trimming feet?
a.
2 to 4 weeks
c.
6 to 8 weeks
b.
9 to 11 weeks
d.
20 to 25 weeks
 

 27. 

Which disease does Coggins’ Test look for?
a.
EEE
b.
EPM
c.
EIA
d.
ECG
 

 28. 

How many American Donkeys are registered in the Donkey and Mule Association?
a.
4
b.
10
c.
3
d.
2
 

 29. 

What does USDF stand for?
a.
United States Donkey Foundation
c.
United States Dressage Foundation
b.
United States Dressage Federation
d.
United States Donkey Federation
 

 30. 

What is the size of the large dressage arena?
a.
60 x 20 feet
c.
20 x 40 feet
b.
197 x 66 meters
d.
20 x 60 meters
 

 31. 

Osselets are inflammatory conditions around the________joint.
a.
Fetlock
b.
Testes
c.
Shoulder
d.
Tail Dock
 

 32. 

A puffy condition in the hock web is called_________.
a.
Whirl Bone
b.
Blemish
c.
Osselets
d.
Thoroughpin
 

 33. 

Dystocia is defined as having difficulty during what?
a.
Parnutrition
b.
Parturition
c.
Purturition
d.
Pituration
 

 34. 

There are __ macro minerals.
a.
9
b.
6
c.
7
d.
8
 

 35. 

When a mare does not cycle she is said to be____________.
a.
Diestrous
b.
Pre Estrous
c.
Estrous
d.
Anestrous
 

 36. 

Filies and Colts reach puberty between______ to _______.
a.
12-18 months
c.
12-18 days
b.
9-10 days
d.
3-6 years
 

 37. 

What is considered a good motility rate?
a.
50%
b.
60%
c.
70%
d.
80%
 

 38. 

What is the normal heart rate of a mature horse?
a.
28-40 bpm
b.
80-120 bmp
c.
38-50 bpm
d.
40-60 bpm
 

 39. 

Skin pliability is a test for what?
a.
Pluse
b.
Respiration
c.
Dehydration
d.
Hydration
 

 40. 

Strangles is also called _______.
a.
Shipping Fever
c.
EHV
b.
Clostridium tetani
d.
None of these are correct
 

 41. 

Saddle pads are also known as_____________.
a.
Billets
b.
Nunnals
c.
Gullets
d.
Flunnals
 

 42. 

The kimberwick bit is similar to what type of bit?
a.
Curb
b.
Hackamore
c.
Pelham
d.
Snaffle
 

 43. 

Which of the following are parts of the western saddle?
a.
Fork, Skirt, Billet
c.
Fork, Horn, Fender
b.
Horn, Twist, Stirrup
d.
Flap, Billets, Gullets
 

 44. 

How do you tell the age of a horse?
a.
Hoof Growth
c.
Eye Pigmentation
b.
Teeth
d.
Can’t tell the age of horse
 

 45. 

Myxovirus causes what?
a.
Clostridium Tetani
c.
Influenza
b.
Streptococcus Equi
d.
Bacteria
 

 46. 

Corn contains a large amount of_______.
a.
Carbohydrates
b.
Protein
c.
Fiber
d.
Lysine
 

 47. 

What are the most common grains fed to horses?
a.
Wheat, Corn, and Grass
c.
Oats, Clover, and Rye
b.
Grass, Barley, and Molasses
d.
Oats, Barley and Corn
 

 48. 

What percentage does a mature horse consume in dry matter a day?
a.
3.5%
b.
2.5%
c.
6.5%
d.
10.5%
 

 49. 

What do the initials C.I.D. stand for ?
a.
Combined Influenza Disorder
c.
Chronic Influenza
b.
Combined Immunodeficiency Disease
d.
Chronic Immunodeficiency Disorder
 

 50. 

Morab is cross between what?
a.
Morgan and Appaloosa
c.
Morgan and Arabian
b.
Mountain Pony and Arabian
d.
Miniature Horse and Albino
 



 
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