Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that
best completes the statement or answers the question.
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1.
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Single-celled animals that
occur in the bloodstream and intestinal tract of horses.
a. | nematodes | c. | Trematodes | b. | Protozoans | d. | Cestodes |
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2.
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What is the common name for
pulmonary emphysema?
a. | hack | b. | laminitis | c. | pulmostasis | d. | heaves |
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3.
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The most damaging of all the
parasites that occur in horses. They live in the large intestine and cecum, where they feed by eating
plugs of the mucosal lining.
a. | Cetodes | c. | Anoplocephala | b. | Ascarids | d. | Strongyles |
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4.
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This eternal parasite found on
horses may cause lesions usually found on the neck,shoulders,head,chest,and flanks of
horses.
a. | Trombicula | c. | Sarcoptes | b. | haematopinus | d. | Damalinia |
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5.
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In a training,riding,or
boarding facility,the recommended stall size is
a. | 10 X 10 | b. | 12 X 12 | c. | 12 X 14 | d. | 14 X 14 |
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6.
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When erecting a building or
facility for use by horses,a slope of ____ is recommended for rapid removal of
water
a. | 1-4% | b. | 2-6% | c. | 3-8% | d. | 8-10% |
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7.
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The most important point of
design when it comes to feeders is to...
a. | keep the feed off the
ground | b. | use a material easy to clean | c. | locating pipes in front of feeders and waterers to keep
horses from leaning on them | d. | use a material easy to clean and locating pipes in front of feeders and
waterers to keep horses from leaning on them |
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8.
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Type of fence and fencing
material that can be used for horses depends on...
a. | type of horse being
managed | c. | projected
budget | b. | intended use of area | d. | All if there are correct |
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9.
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The top of a horse fence should
be ______ inches above ground level
a. | 48-52 | b. | 53-58 | c. | 59-62 | d. | 63-65 |
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10.
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What type of digestion takes
place in the foregut of the horse?
a. | amino acid
digestion | c. | digestion of fat
soluble vitamins | b. | initial digestion | d. | enzymatic digestion |
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11.
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A normal healthy hoof wall of a
horse should grow at a rate of ___ inches/month.
a. | 1/8-1/4 | c. | 1/2-3/4 | b. | 1/4-1/2 | d. | 3/4 of and inch or more |
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12.
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The normal heart rate of an
adult,resting horse is ____ beats/min (bpm)
a. | 38-40 | b. | 40-58 | c. | 55-62 | d. | 62-75 |
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13.
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A mare’s nutritional
requirements are highest during the____ month(s) of pregnancy.
a. | first 8 | b. | 9th | c. | 10th | d. | 11th |
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14.
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During the first 3 months after
foaling,mares can produce milk equivalent to ____% of their body weight every
day.
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15.
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Feeding requirements of a
lactating mare are___% above maintenance requirements during the first 3 months.
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16.
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Name the type of colic
resulting from a blockage of the intestinal tract with normal ingesta or with foreign
material.
a. | enterolith | c. | torsion | b. | impaction | d. | intussusception |
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17.
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What is the minimum amount of
water a horse should receive/day/100 pounds?
a. | 1 gal | b. | 2 gal | c. | 3 gal | d. | 4 gal |
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18.
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A substance that when
introduced into an organism,induces an immune response consisting of the production of a circulating
antibody.
a. | anthelgens | b. | azoturiagens | c. | antigens | d. | mutagens |
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19.
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The suggested vaccination
program for encephalomyelitis in equine initially and as a booster is.....
a. | 2 injections, 1 month apart,the
annually | b. | 2 injections, 2 months apart,then annually | c. | 3 injections 1 month apart,then
annually | d. | 3 injections at 3, 4 & 6 months of age,then
annually |
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20.
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An acute upper respiratory
infection with severe nasal discharge. Direct contact spreads this virus between
horses
a. | rhinopneumonitis | c. | sinusitis | b. | pleuropneumonia | d. | influenza |
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21.
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A highly contagious disease
that causes high fever and persistent cough.
a. | rhinopneumonitis | c. | sinusitis | b. | pleuropneumonia | d. | influenza |
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22.
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Dental diseases may occur at
any age. It is recommended that horse’s mouths be checked every_____ for dental
abnormalities.
a. | 6
months | b. | yearly | c. | 18 months | d. | 2 years |
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23.
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This mineral makes up 14-17% of
the horse’s skeleton.
a. | Calcium | b. | Phosphorus | c. | Potassium | d. | Sodium |
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24.
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Rickets is caused by a
deficiency of this mineral.
a. | Calcium | b. | Phosphorus | c. | Potassium | d. | Sodium |
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25.
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A calcium to phosphorus ratio
of less than ___ may be detrimental to calcium absorption.
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26.
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More than half of the magnesium
found in the horse’s body is found in the horses’
a. | muscle
tissue | c. | soft
tissue | b. | skeleton | d. | connective tissues |
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27.
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This micro mineral is essential
for the production of thyroid hormones which regulate basal metabolism.
a. | Copper | b. | Selenium | c. | Iodine | d. | Zinc |
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28.
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Deficiency of this vitamin
cause night blindness,excessive tearing of the eye,thickening of the horn layer of the skin and
cornea,lack of appetite,poor growth,respiratory infections,abscesses under the tongue,convulsive
seizures,and progressive weakness.
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29.
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When mares begin cycling in the
spring,their estrous lasts....
a. | 24-36
hours | b. | 36-48
hours | c. | 6-8
days | d. | 28
days |
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30.
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That time when a mare does not
have a heat cycle, usually during the winter months.
a. | diestus | b. | anoestrus | c. | monoestrus | d. | polyestrus |
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31.
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Mares come into estrous several
times a year,but do not cycle all year round. This is termed....
a. | diestus | b. | anestrus | c. | monoestrus | d. | polyestrus |
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32.
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From ovulation to parturition
in horses is?
a. | 270
days | b. | 335
days | c. | 348
days | d. | 362
days |
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33.
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A mare that has never been bred
before is called?
a. | maiden | b. | barren | c. | open | d. | wet |
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34.
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At 6 to 12 days after giving
birth,mares will come into heat and should not be bred. This period is termed
a. | silent
heat | c. | lochia | b. | foal heat | d. | none are the correct answer |
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35.
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Flushing of embryos occurs_____
days after insemination.
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36.
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If you wanted to breed a mare
in February,when would you have to begin the use of artificial lighting?
a. | January/February | c. | November/December | b. | January/December | d. | October/November |
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37.
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Which one of the following
bones is not found in the horse’s skeleton?
a. | scapula | b. | patella | c. | tibia | d. | clavicle |
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38.
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The entire digestive tract of a
mature horse is approximately 100 feet long. What is the capacity of digestive tract in
gallons?
a. | 20-30 | b. | 40-50 | c. | 50-60 | d. | 60+ |
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39.
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Semi horny formation found on
the rear, base of the ankle/fetlock joint.
a. | Feather | b. | Chestnut | c. | Ergot | d. | Corn |
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40.
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This is a bacterial infection
of the hair pores in the skin that causes hair to come out in tuffs with dead skin and crusty
secretions at the base.
a. | Rain
Rot | b. | Psoriasis | c. | Itchyosis | d. | Eczema |
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41.
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How might a young foals can
become infested with Treadworm larvae?
a. | Through the Dam’s
milk | b. | Migration of larvae through the skin | c. | Ingestion of infected
bedding | d. | All of these are correct |
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42.
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A short,quick, choppy stride.
This tends to occur in horses with short upright pasterns.
a. | Dishing | b. | Trappy | c. | Forging | d. | Paddling |
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43.
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The striking of any part of a
supporting leg in motion
a. | Over-reaching | c. | Interfering | b. | Forging | d. | Paddling |
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44.
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This type of seat has a saddle
that is designed to place the rider slightly further back behind the withers to aid impulsion of the
horse.
a. | Dressage | b. | Western | c. | Saddle | d. | Hunt |
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45.
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Positioning of the hands 8
inches apart and at a 30-40 degree angle from the vertical is standard for which
seat?
a. | Dressage | b. | Western | c. | Saddle | d. | Hunt |
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